Use the points (2, 2485.6) and (6, 1172.5) to write an equation of the line of fit in slope-intercept form. Let x be the years since 2010 and let y be the number of CDs in millions sold.

Answer:

2/12

Step-by-step explanation:

4 + 2 = 6 + 6 = 12

there is 2 blue pens

so 2 out of 12

CAN I HAVE BRAINLEIST PLEASE?????

Answer:

1/6

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 12 pens in the box and 2 blue pens

Probability to selecting a blue pen is 2/12 = 1/6

Answer:

Y= -1/2x -1

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Jeremy's team lost by 1 to get a tied game but his team lost by 2 for the win

Answer:

8th term is 179.15904

Step-by-step explanation:

The sequence is geometric with a common ration = 6/5

r = 60/50 = 72/60 = 6/5

Use the formula

[tex]a_{n} = ar^{n - 1}[/tex]

In your case a = 50, r = 6/5 and n = 8

[tex]a_{8} = 50(6/5)^{8 - 1} \\ = 50(6/5)^{7} \\ = 50(279936/78125)\\ = 179.15904[/tex]

Answer:

17

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope it correctly does come true as I am in the process

Answer:

1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

y2-y1 divided by x2-x1 is (9-8)/(5-3)= 1/2

Answer:

slope= 1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

23/16

Step-by-step explanation:

23/16+1/16=24/16=3/2

Answer:

how am i gonna solve the equation if i cant see the actual chart?

Step-by-step explanation:

Step-by-step explanation:

a+10=44°[being interior angle of triangle]

a=44-10

a=34

now

2a

2×34

68

igussss

Answer:

A) v = T/2 - 5

Step-by-step explanation:

T = 10+2v

2v = T-10

v = (T-10)/2 = T/2-5

The equation that describes no. of DVDs that Ingrid can rent is A.              v = (T/2) - 5.

An equation states that terms on both sides of the equality sign are equal.

The monthly membership costs 10 dollars, and The rent for each DVD costs 2 dollars.

No. of DVDs that can be rented is denoted by v based on T.

The equation that describes the total cost of renting DVDs is,

T = 2v + 10.

∴ The equation that describes no. of DVDs that can be rented is

2v = T  - 10.

v = (T/2) - 5.

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Answer:

0.387

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The answer would be 0.387

Answer:

lisa has been dancing for 9 yrs

Step-by-step explanation:

6+3=9

and ive been dancing for longer than both of them lol hope this helped :)

Answer:

9 Years

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: 284.7

Step-by-step explanation:

radius of cone and hemisphere are the same

volume of half sphere=(1/2)*(4/3)*[tex]\pi r^{3}[/tex]

                                    =(1/2)*(4/3)*3.14*[tex]4^{3}[/tex]                       (4*4*4=64)

                                    =133.97333

                                    =133.97

volume of cone= (1/3)[tex]\pi r^{2}[/tex]h

                         =(1/3)*3.14*[tex]4^{2}[/tex]*9                                      (4*4=16)

                         =150.72

total volume=133.97+150.72

                    =284.69

                    =284.7

Answer:

1) 3x

2) 3m - 2n

Answer:

below

Step-by-step explanation:

3x, 3 m − 2 n

Answer:

V=80π/3 or V=83.78

Step-by-step explanation:

The volume is

V=πr^2h/3

r=4 (because the radius is half the diameter)

h=5

V=π16*5/3

V=80π/3

Answer:

83.73

Step-by-step explanation:

volume = (1/3) · π · r2 · h

volume = (1/3) x 3.14 x 4^2 x 5

volume = (1/3) x 3.14 x 16 x 5

3.14 x 16 x 5 = 251.2

1/3 x 251.2

83.73

Answer:

GH = 13

FG = 20

<F = 78

<G = 102

<H = 78

Step-by-step explanation:

Since there are 5 measures that are missing, we will do each one in a different part.

1.  The side length of GH is 13. Since this is a parallelogram, the opposite side of your original side is congruent, meaning that its the same. So, knowing that the opposite of FI is GH, we can say that GH is 13 units long.

2. We can use the same logic for number 2, when finding FG. Since HI is 20. we can say that since the corresponding side is also congruent to our original length, they are equivalent. Basically meaning they are the same

3. a. For finding F, we will need to use a different method. Since a parallelogram is somewhat like a transversal we can use that to our advantage. (If you don't know what a transversal it, look at part B instead) Since we know that angle I is 102, and both line FG and HI are parallel, the angles are basically adjacent, when switched. So we should see that it would have to be 78. Meaning that F is 78.

3. b. If you don't understand what a transversal is, we can still figure it out. Knowing that the figure is a closed shape, along with knowing that its a parallelogram, we can say that if we were to sum the angles F and I, we would get 180. 180-102=78, so F is 78.

4. Since we can use a transversal or just pure logic to say that angle G and I are equivalent, meaning that G is 102.

5. This one is exceptionally simple, just for the fact that we have answered the previous questions. We have H left, which is not only equivalent to F, but using 3. b. we can say that its would only make sense that H is 78 as well, to sum up that half to 180.

Answer:

$13500. 00 is the 15% increase yearly + $90000.00 = $103,500.00 new yearly salary

Answer:

[tex]\boxed{\textsf{ The degree measure is \textbf{ 48}$^{\textbf{o}}$.}}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Here we are given radian measure which is 4π/15 radians . We know the relationship between Radian and Degree measure as ,

[tex]\qquad\boxed{\boxed{ \sf\pi rad = 180^o }}[/tex]

Put on the respective values ,

=> π rad = 180°

=> 1 rad = 180°/ π

=> 4π/15 rad = 180°/π × 4π/15

=> 4π/15 rad = 48 °

Answer:

$0.25

Step-by-step explanation:

2-0z bag of M&Ms costing $0.50 is better, because

0.50/2 = $0.25

Answer:

x : __ - 2 __ -1 ___0 ___ 1 ___ 2 ___ 3

y: ___ 5___ 2___ 1 ___ 2____5 ___ - 3

Step-by-step explanation:

Table of values for part A

Equation : y = x² + 1

x : __ - 2 __ -1 ___0 ___ 1 ___ 2 ___ 3

y: ____ ___ ___ 1 __ ___5 __ - 3

Substitute the value of x to obtain the missing values _

x = - 2

y = (-2)² + 1 = 4 + 1 = 5

x = - 1

y = (-1)² + 1 = 1 + 1 = 2

x = 1

y = (1)² + 1 = 1 + 1 = 2

Answer:

its 8/3 and 2

Step-by-step explanation:

its that answer because on the chart its f(x and g(x and there both on there

Answer:

It should be C

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope this helps!

Answer:

Ice forces the cracks to become larger and larger, eroding bits of stone in the process. During brief, heavy rains, water rushes down the cracks, eroding even more rocks and stone. As more rocks crumble and fall, the canyon grows wider at the top than at the bottom.

6x+30(less than or equal to sign) 150

The max amount of friends she can bring is 20 that is the answer to the question

Answer:

-The answer is =19400

Step-by-step explanation:

i hope this helps

Answer:

C) 718.3 cubic yards

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope this helps :)

Answer:

228.6π cubic yards

Step-by-step explanation:

Volume of a cone formula: V = 1/3hπr²

h = 14

r = 7

Just plug in the values.

1/3(14)π(7)² = 228.6π

Answer:

Hi!

Step-by-step explanation:

Slope is -15/8

Final answer is -15/8

I hope this helps you!

Have  a nice day! :)

-

:D

Step-by-step explanation:

Slope is rise over run. This means your y is over your x. Start with subtracting your y values. It doesn't matter which way, just make sure you do the same with the x values. For this, I'll do it 6 - -9. The two negatives cancel out and make a positive, so your y value is 15. Now, do the same to the x values. -9 - -1 is -8. You're left with 15/-8. Since this can't be simplified, this is your final answer. Hope I helped!

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The experimental value of probability of the arrow landing on a section labeled with a multiple of 4 is 3/4 or 0.75

The probability that an event will occur is measured by the ratio of favorable examples to the total number of situations possible

Probability = number of desirable outcomes / total number of possible outcomes

The value of probability lies between 0 and 1

Given data ,

The probability that the arrow lands on a section labeled with a multiple of 4 is an experimental probability since it is based on the results of an actual experiment or trial.

The experimental probability is given by:

Experimental probability = Number of times the event occurred / Total number of trials

In this case, the event is the arrow landing on a section labeled with a multiple of 4, and the total number of trials is 60.

From the given information, we know that the arrow landed on a section labeled with a multiple of 4 on 45 out of 60 times.

So the experimental probability is:

Experimental probability = 45/60

Simplifying:

Experimental probability = 3/4

Hence , the experimental probability of the arrow landing a multiple of 4 is 3/4 or 0.75

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Answer:

4.734 * 10^-5 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that:

Distance between House to movie theater = 3 inches

Expressing the distance in miles :

Converting inch to miles

1 inch = 1.578 * 10^-5 miles

3 inches = (3 * 1.578*10^-5)

3 inches = 4.734 * 10^-5 miles