T devises property "to A for life, and on A's death to A's children for their lives, and upon the death of A and A's children, to ["B if A has no grandchildren then living"]." A and B survive T. A has one child, X, who also survives T.
What effects the vesting of this interest?

Answers

Answer 1

The effects of the vesting of the interest will be B's contingent remainder is void. B's remainder would vest if there is no living grandchild of A at the death of the longest-lived of A's children. The interest would remain contingent for the lives of all of A's children; only then would we know whether A has surviving grandchildren.

A can affect vesting by having more children, A's children can affect vesting by having more of A's grandchildren, and the presently-living grandchildren can affect vesting by surviving B. None of these qualify as validating lives. A's children can conceivably outlive A by more than 21 years, and so A cannot be the validating life. A's children who were living at T''s death are not validating lives. Since A is alive, A might have a child after T's death.

This child might live more than 21 years after the deaths of those of A's children who were living at the time of T's death. The death of the survivor of A's children could therefore conceivably occur more than 21 years after the death of those of A's children who were living at the time of the conveyance.

Hence A's presently-living children are not validating lives. Nor are A's currently-living grandchildren validating lives. They could all die, another grandchild might be born, and, by surviving B, that grandchild's interest could vest more than 21 years after the deaths of all of the currently-living grandchildren.

Nor is B. B could die and pass B's interest to heirs or devisees who have not been born yet, and whose interest could vest long after B's death. Nor is there anyone else in existence at the time of the conveyance about whom you can say that the interest is guaranteed to vest or fail within their lives or within 21 years of their death. The interest therefore does not satisfy the Rule Against Perpetuities, and must therefore be stricken.

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The Law of Demand implies that

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The Law of Demand implies that the quantity demanded of a commodity will decrease as its price increases,

According to the Law of Demand, when all other demand-influencing factors stay constant, a commodity's quantity desired will drop as its price rises and vice versa. In other words, the amount that customers desire and the cost of an item or service are inversely related. It is an essential principle of economics that customers' actions alter in reaction to price fluctuations. Typically, it is represented graphically as a downward-sloping demand curve, with the amount desired shown on the horizontal axis and the price of the commodity or service on the vertical axis.

It is predicated on idea that customers are rational and would want to get the most utility or enjoyment out of buying products and using services. When an item or service's price rises, it becomes relatively more costly in comparison to other goods or services, and customers may decide to demand fewer of them in favor of more affordable alternatives.

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What standard from New York Times v. Sullivan is used in a landmark case involving the intentional infliction of emotional distress?

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The standard from New York Times v. Sullivan that is used in a landmark case involving the intentional infliction of emotional distress is the actual malice standard.

This standard requires that the plaintiff prove that the defendant acted with actual malice.This means that they knew the statements they made were false or made them with reckless disregard for the truth.

This standard was established in New York Times v. Sullivan in order to protect free speech rights under the First Amendment and prevent the chilling effect that could result from allowing public figures to sue for defamation without having to prove actual malice.

In cases involving intentional infliction of emotional distress, the actual malice standard is used because it helps to ensure that plaintiffs are not able to use this cause of action to stifle free speech or punish people for expressing their opinions or beliefs.

By requiring plaintiffs to prove that defendants acted with actual malice, the standard helps to balance the interests of free speech and protecting individuals from harmful and outrageous conduct that causes severe emotional distress.

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​The power given to courts to hear certain types of cases is called:

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The power given to courts to hear certain types of cases is called jurisdiction. Jurisdiction refers to the authority of a court to adjudicate a particular case based on the subject matter of the dispute, the geographic location of the parties, or the type of legal remedy sought.

Courts are typically divided into two main categories of jurisdiction: original jurisdiction and appellate jurisdiction. Original jurisdiction refers to a court's authority to hear a case for the first time, while appellate jurisdiction refers to a court's authority to review and potentially overturn a decision made by a lower court.

Jurisdiction is an important concept in the legal system, as it helps ensure that cases are heard by the appropriate court and that the rule of law is applied consistently and fairly.

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Tort law can be classified as:a. negligentb. intentionalc. strict liabilityd. all of the other choicese. none of the other specific choices

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There are three subfields of Tort law careless errors, deliberate errors, and severe responsibility errors. It's D, which includes all of the other options.

A tort is an act or elision that causes detriment to another person and is a civil wrong for which the law holds the responsible party responsible. There are three subfields of tort law careless errors, deliberate errors, and severe responsibility errors.

Careless errors are hurts finished to individualities through the disappointment of one further to exercise a specific degree of care, generally characterized as a sensible norm of care. The law of unlawful injuries has been appertained to as tort law.

People who have been hurt by evildoers' negligence, neglectfulness, or purposeful conduct are defended and compensated by the law.

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To have a case in tort, the injury sustained by a person must be:a. unreasonably sustainedb. the consequence of the wrongdoing of another c. criminal in natured. based on a privity relationship e. none of the other choices

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To have a case in tort, the injury sustained by a person must be b. the consequence of the wrongdoing of another

A person must typically suffer suffering as a result of the misconduct or carelessness of another party in order to establish a case in tort, which is a civil wrong that harms someone. As a result, considerable harm must have been brought about by someone else's acts or inactions.

In such a case the victim that underwent harm must prove that the negligent person owed them a duty of care and that the violation of that duty led to the harm. The harm cannot simply be the result of pure accident or deliberate criminal behaviour; it must be the result of another's fault or wrongdoing.

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The intentional detention of a person may be the tort of:a. battery b. assaultc. defamation d. duresse. false imprisonment

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The intentional detention of a person may be the tort of false imprisonment. d)False imprisonment occurs when a person is confined or restrained without their consent or without lawful authority.

The confinement may be physical, such as being locked in a room, or psychological, such as threatening someone to stay in a specific location.

False imprisonment is considered a violation of a person's liberty and can result in legal action against the individual or entity responsible. It differs from assault and battery, which involve physical harm or threats of harm, and defamation, which involves the spread of false information that harms a person's reputation.

Duress, on the other hand, refers to coercion or threats that force a person to do something against their will, but it does not necessarily involve confinement or restraint.

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What if the disturbance in question is not noise but cigarette smoke seeping from neighboring units into the unit of a nonsmoking tenant?

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In this situation, the disturbance is not a form of noise, but rather an issue of air quality. Cigarette smoke can be harmful to health, and it is understandable that a nonsmoking tenant would not want to be exposed to it in their own living space.

The tenant should first try to talk to their neighbors and request that they refrain from smoking in a way that allows smoke to seep into other units.

If the issue persists, the tenant can bring the matter to the attention of their landlord or property management company, as they may have policies in place to address this type of issue.

Ultimately, ensuring a healthy and safe living environment should be a top priority for all parties involved. The tenant should first try to talk to their neighbors and request that they refrain from smoking in a way that allows smoke to seep into other units.

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59. Over the past three decades changes in the process of choosing presidential nominees have increased the role and influence of all of the following EXCEPT

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Over the past three decades, changes in the process of choosing presidential nominees have increased the role and influence of all of the following, except party leaders, because it has decreased their role and influence.

The correct answer is party leaders.

Instead, the role of party leaders has been replaced by a more decentralized and democratized process that involves greater participation from rank-and-file voters. This has been driven partly by the rise of primary elections and caucuses, which allow voters to directly select their party's nominee rather than leaving the decision to party leaders or elites.

Additionally, the increased use of social media and other forms of technology has made it easier for candidates to communicate directly with voters, further diminishing the role of party leaders in the nomination process.

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For a person's negligent conduct to be legally linked to its consequences, the chain of events connecting the two must be:a. unbrokenb. foreseeable c. explainable d. undisputablee. none of the other choices

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For a person's negligent conduct to be legally linked to its consequences, the chain of events connecting the two must be foreseeable. In order to establish negligence, the following elements must be proven: duty of care, breach of that duty, causation, and damages.

Causation is a key element and can be divided into two components: actual causation and proximate causation. Actual causation is the "cause in fact" or "but for" test, which establishes whether the defendant's actions were the factual cause of the plaintiff's injuries.

Proximate causation, on the other hand, addresses the scope of liability by determining whether the defendant's conduct was sufficiently related to the plaintiff's injuries. Foreseeability is an essential aspect of proximate causation. It means that the defendant should have reasonably anticipated that their actions could cause harm to the plaintiff.

The chain of events must be unbroken and directly linked to the consequences. If an unforeseeable intervening cause occurs, breaking the chain of events, the defendant may not be held liable for the plaintiff's injuries.

In summary, to legally link a person's negligent conduct to its consequences, the chain of events connecting the two must be foreseeable, which helps establish proximate causation.

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The legal term referring to the domestic buildings that surround and support a residence is:

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Answer:

Explanation:

The legal term referring to the domestic buildings that surround and support a residence is "curtilage".

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give 3 acts which have undermined civil liberties

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1. Patriot Act: The Patriot Act was a series of laws passed in the United States after the September 11th attacks in 2001. It greatly expanded the powers of law enforcement and intelligence agencies to monitor the activities of citizens and non-citizens, without the need for a warrant or probable cause. The act has been widely criticized for undermining civil liberties and due process rights.

2. Internment of Japanese Americans: During World War II, the U.S. government ordered the internment of 120,000 Japanese Americans in camps across the country. This was done without any due process and was seen as a violation of civil liberties.

3. Alien and Sedition Acts: The Alien and Sedition Acts were four laws passed by the U.S. Congress in 1798. These laws made it easier for the government to deport immigrants, restricted freedom of speech, and allowed for the arrest of anyone deemed to be a threat to the country. They were widely seen as an attack on civil liberties and were later repealed.

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What is the central idea of the 1st stanza of Section 30?

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Section 30 of Walt Whitman's "Song of Myself" is a long and complex poem that explores various themes related to the self and society. The first stanza of this section serves as an introduction to the rest of the poem, and its central idea is the unity of all things in the universe.

The correct answer is unity of all things in the universe.

Walt Whitman begins the stanza by declaring, "I am the poet of the Body, and I am the poet of the Soul," emphasizing the connection between human existence's physical and spiritual aspects. He goes on to describe the "great pride" he takes in his work, which involves celebrating all aspects of life, including the "bodies of men and women," "the love of comrades," and "the pleasure of the young beech-tree."

Through these images, Whitman suggests that everything in the world is interconnected and that the natural world is an essential source of inspiration and vitality for the human spirit.

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T/F Testimony by an expert that a particular quantity of drugs was possed by the defendant with an intent to distribute violates Rule 704.

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It is against Rule 704 for an expert to testify that the defendant had a certain amount of drugs in his possession with the intent to distribute them. This statement is false.

Testimony by an expert regarding the intent of the defendant to distribute drugs does not necessarily violate Rule 704 of the Federal Rules of Evidence. Rule 704 states that "testimony in the form of an opinion or inference otherwise admissible is not objectionable because it embraces an ultimate issue to be decided by the trier of fact."

Therefore, if the expert testimony regarding the number of drugs possessed by the defendant, along with other evidence, supports an inference of intent to distribute, then such testimony would be admissible under Rule 704. However, if the expert testimony directly states the defendant's guilt or innocence, it could be considered improper under Rule 704.

It is worth noting that the admissibility of expert testimony in criminal cases is generally determined by the judge on a case-by-case basis, based on the relevance and reliability of the testimony. Ultimately, the weight and credibility of the expert testimony are for the jury to decide.

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how is the bias in the judges changing and meaning they protect our liberties better?

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The bias in judges has been shifting over the years to better protect our liberties. Judges are increasingly recognizing that civil rights and liberties should be respected and protected.

They are taking a more active role in ensuring that individuals have access to justice and that their civil rights are respected. The courts are also taking a more active role in the interpretation of laws, balancing the interests of the state and individuals.

Judges are becoming more aware of the importance of civil rights and liberties, and are more likely to consider these issues when making decisions.

As a result, judges are more likely to interpret laws in ways that protect the rights of individuals and are more likely to recognize that certain rights should be protected. In this way, judges are helping to ensure that our liberties are respected and protected.

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The purpose of right-to-work laws is to _______________.A. encourage full employment in the economyB. make it illegal to force people to join a union to get or keep a jobC. require that employers bargain in good faith with union representativesD. prohibit unions from organizing in a particular state

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The purpose of right-to-work laws is to make it illegal to force people to join a union to get or keep a job, to protect workers' freedom of association and to prevent unions from exerting undue influence over employment decisions.

The correct option is B.

Right-to-work laws are currently in effect in 27 states in the United States, primarily in the southern and western regions of the country. These laws are controversial, with supporters arguing that they promote individual freedom and encourage economic growth by making states more attractive to businesses.

One of the critical provisions of right-to-work laws is the prohibition of "union security clauses" in collective bargaining agreements. These clauses require employees to join a union or pay union dues as a condition of employment. In states with right-to-work laws, employees are free to work without joining a union or paying union dues, even if a union represents their workplace.

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Sole proprietors are not considered employees of their business and are not liable for payroll taxes. Instead, sole proprietors pay_________.-_________ tax on their business profits.

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Sole proprietors are not considered employees of their business and are not liable for payroll taxes. Instead, sole proprietors pay self-employments tax on their business profits. This tax is composed of Social Security and Medicare taxes, which are the same taxes that are withheld from the paychecks of employees.

The self-employment tax applies to any net earnings from self-employment. The net earnings are calculated by subtracting all business expenses from the total gross income of the business. The self-employment tax rate is currently 15.3%, with 12.4% of the rate going to Social Security and the remaining 2.9% going to Medicare.

Unlike employees, who split the tax burden with their employer, sole proprietors are solely responsible for the entire 15.3% self-employment tax. This tax is generally lower than the total payroll tax an employee would pay, but higher than the payroll taxes paid by an employer.

Sole proprietors must also pay federal income tax on their net earnings from self-employment. The tax rate for sole proprietors is the same as for other taxpayers and depends on their income level. In addition, some states and localities levy their own income taxes on sole proprietors.

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32. Except for the years 1984 and 1992, voter turnout in presidential elections has declined steadily since

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Except for 1984 and 1992, voter turnout in presidential elections has declined steadily since the 1960s. In 1960, voter turnout was approximately 63%, while in the 2016 presidential election, voter turnout was around 58%.

The correct answer is 1960s.

This trend has been observed in both major political parties, with Democrats and Republicans experiencing similar declines in voter participation. There are a variety of potential explanations for this trend, including factors such as increasing levels of political cynicism, a growing sense of political apathy among young voters, changes in voting laws and regulations, and the rising popularity of alternative forms of political engagement such as social media activism.

Some analysts believe that attempts to enhance voter turnout should include policies that make it simpler for individuals to register and vote, such as early voting, online voter registration, and automated voter registration.

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​TRUE/FALSE. A court that can only hear disputes involving damages of $5,000 or less has a limited jurisdiction.

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The statement "A court that can only hear disputes involving damages of $5,000 or less has a limited jurisdiction" is true. This means that the court has a specific and narrow authority to hear only cases with a certain monetary limit.

This type of court is typically referred to as a small claims court, and its purpose is to provide a simplified and cost-effective process for individuals and small businesses to resolve disputes without the need for expensive legal representation.

Small claims courts have strict rules and procedures that limit the types of cases they can hear, the amount of damages that can be awarded, and the jurisdiction over parties involved. In most cases, small claims courts can only hear disputes involving minor legal issues, such as breach of contract, property damage, or personal injury claims.

It is important to note that while small claims courts have limited jurisdiction, they can still provide a valuable resource for individuals and businesses seeking to resolve disputes quickly and efficiently. By utilizing small claims courts, parties can save time and money, and avoid the stress and uncertainty of a more formal legal process.

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T/F A lay witness may not testify that he thinks the man was carrying a gun but is not 100% positive.

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False. A lay witness may testify to their observations or perceptions, including their beliefs or opinions about what they saw or heard,

Even if they are not certain or 100% positive. However, the weight and credibility of such testimony may be affected by the witness's level of certainty or confidence.

It is up to the trier of fact (judge or jury) to determine the credibility and weight of all evidence presented.

However, the level of certainty or confidence in their observations may be called into question during cross-examination, and the trier of fact may consider this in determining the weight and credibility of their testimony.

Ultimately, the admissibility and weight of witness testimony is determined by the rules of evidence and the discretion of the judge.

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Brennan's 3 reasons for why the Sullivan decision shouldn't stand

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Justice Brennan's three reasons for challenging the Sullivan decision relate to are the chilling effect on free speech, the need for a higher standard of proof for public officials, and the federalizing of libel law.

1) Chilling effect on free speech: Brennan argued that the Sullivan decision could lead to self-censorship by the media, as they may fear lawsuits from public officials. This, in turn, would limit the public's access to vital information and hinder democratic debate.

2) Higher standard of proof for public officials: Brennan suggested that public officials should be held to a higher standard of proof when claiming defamation. He introduced the "actual malice" standard, which requires the plaintiff to prove that the defendant knew the statement was false or showed reckless disregard for the truth.

3) Federalizing libel law: Lastly, Brennan believed that the Sullivan decision led to the federalization of libel law, taking it out of the hands of state courts. He thought this would create a more uniform and fair legal standard for defamation cases involving public officials.

In summary, Justice Brennan's three reasons for challenging the Sullivan decision are the potential chilling effect on free speech, the need for a higher standard of proof for public officials, and the federalizing of libel law.

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"On all sides prurient...for a purpose" (Section 28)

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This phrase is part of a longer sentence in Section 28 of Walt Whitman's poem "Song of Myself", which reads:

"On all sides prurient provokers stiffening my limbs,

Straining the udder of my heart for its withheld drip,

Behaving licentious toward me, taking no denial,

Depriving me of my best as for a purpose,"

It talks about different desires and interests that people have, which some people might think are indecent. Whitman thinks these desires are a natural part of being human, and we should accept and enjoy them instead of being ashamed.

The phrase "for a purpose" means that these desires have an essential role in our lives and shouldn't be ignored. The phrase is about how humans have many different desires, and accepting them is essential.

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Lawyers or judges Currently or Formerly in Government Service

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Lawyers or judges who have previously served in government positions are often highly valued in the legal profession due to their experience and knowledge of government operations. These individuals may have worked as government attorneys, judges, or other legal professionals in various government agencies or branches of government.



Their experience working in government can make them valuable resources for clients seeking legal counsel related to government regulations, policies, or procedures. Additionally, their understanding of the inner workings of government can be helpful in navigating complex legal issues that involve government agencies or officials.
Overall, lawyers or judges with government experience can bring a unique perspective and set of skills to their legal practice, making them valuable assets to both clients and the legal profession as a whole.

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The Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993, requires that employers allow eligible employees to take a total of ____ during any ____ period.12 weeks' paid leave; 12-month24 weeks' paid leave; 24-month12 weeks' unpaid leave; 12-month24 weeks' unpaid leave; 24-month

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The Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993 requires that employers allow eligible employees to take a total of 12 weeks of unpaid leave during any 12-month period. The correct option is c.

It is a federal law that provides eligible employees with job-protected leave for certain family and medical reasons. It applies to private employers with 50 or more employees, as well as all public agencies and schools.

To be eligible for the leave, an employee must have worked for their employer for at least 12 months, have worked at least 1,250 hours during the 12 months prior to the start of the leave, and work at a location where the employer has at least 50 employees within 75 miles. Therefore, the correct option is c.

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What negative consequences can arise from the media using misleading or sensational headlines in order to attract consumers?

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

Using misleading or sensational headlines can have several negative consequences, including:

Misinformation: Misleading headlines can lead to false or incomplete information being spread, which can cause confusion and misunderstanding among the public.

Loss of trust: Sensational headlines can make people sceptical of the media, and they may begin to distrust news sources altogether.

Polarization: Misleading headlines can contribute to political polarization by perpetuating stereotypes or misconceptions about certain groups or issues.

Clickbait culture: Overuse of sensational or misleading headlines can contribute to a culture of clickbait, where the goal is to attract clicks rather than provide accurate information.

Lack of focus on important issues: When news outlets prioritize sensational stories over important issues, it can lead to a lack of focus on critical topics that need attention.

Overall, the use of misleading or sensational headlines can undermine the credibility and integrity of the media, erode public trust, and lead to negative social and political consequences.

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Misleading or sensational media headlines can result in misinformation, erosion of trust in media, increased societal polarization, and the promotion of a clickbait culture, undermining responsible journalism and public discourse.

The media's reliance on misleading or sensational headlines can yield several detrimental consequences. Foremost is the spread of misinformation, as such headlines often distort facts and lead to public misunderstanding. Trust in media outlets can erode when sensationalism becomes routine, undermining the media's role in providing reliable information.

Sensational headlines can contribute to societal polarization by exploiting emotional biases and catering to specific demographics, further dividing communities. Moreover, a clickbait culture may emerge, prioritizing click-through rates over responsible journalism, and diminishing the overall quality of news and information. Consequently, such practices not only harm public discourse but also erode the media's credibility and societal cohesion.

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Dan writes a $50 check at the grocery store to pay for his purchases. His checkbook shows a balance of $95. Unknown to Dan, he has made an error in subtraction and his account actually contains only $15. So far, the most serious offense, if any, Dan has committed is:

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Assuming that Dan had no intention to deceive or defraud the grocery store, the most severe offence he has committed is likely to be a misdemeanour charge of passing a bad check or writing a check with insufficient funds.

The correct answer is misdemeanour.

In most states, passing a bad check, also known as a check to kite or writing a check with insufficient funds, is a criminal offence. The severity of the offence depends on the amount of the check, the defendant's intent, and whether the defendant has any prior convictions for similar offences. Since the check amount in this scenario is $50, the offence would likely be classified as a misdemeanour.

However, if it can be proven that Dan knowingly wrote a check with insufficient funds to deceive or defraud the grocery store, he could face more severe charges of check fraud or even theft.

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T or F -- There is no defense in an intentional infliction of emotional distress case if plaintiff proves his or her case.

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The statement "There is no defense in an intentional infliction of emotional distress case if the plaintiff proves his or her case" is False. Defendants can use defenses against accusations of intentional emotional harm, even after the plaintiff has established their case.

While it may be challenging to defend against intentional infliction of emotional distress claims once the plaintiff has proven their case, there are still potential defenses available. Here is a brief explanation:

1. Consent: If the defendant can prove that the plaintiff consented to the conduct that caused the emotional distress, this may serve as a valid defense.

2. Privilege: In some situations, the defendant may be protected by a privilege, such as the right to free speech or the right to discipline a child, which may justify the actions that led to the emotional distress.

3. Lack of intent: The defendant may argue that their actions were not intended to cause emotional distress but were instead a result of negligence or some other unintentional act.

4. Statute of limitations: If the plaintiff fails to bring their claim within the time period prescribed by law, the defendant may use the statute of limitations as a defense.

5. Truth as a defense in defamation cases: If the plaintiff's emotional distress arises from defamatory statements, the defendant may assert the truth of the statements as a defense.

In conclusion, while it may be difficult to defend against a claim of intentional infliction of emotional distress once the plaintiff has proven their case, there are still potential defenses available to the defendant.

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You run towards someone screaming and swinging a stick. You were only kidding, but the person you were running at thought you were serious. You might be sued for the tort of:a. invasion of right to privacyb. libelc. assault d. batterye. false imprisonment

Answers

In this case, we could face legal action for the crime of "assault."

A person commits an assault when they purposefully lead someone else to reasonably anticipate a damaging or offensive encounter. Despite the fact that you were merely joking and did not have the intention of hurting the other person, your conduct of dashing in their direction while yelling and swinging a weapon could be interpreted as menacing and could give rise to reasonable fears of danger or offensive contact on their part. Therefore, what you're doing can qualify as an assault.

Hence, the correct option is C.

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The tort that you might be sued for in this situation is assault. Assault is the act of intentionally causing someone to fear an imminent harmful or offensive contact, even if there is no actual physical contact.

In this case, your actions of screaming and swinging a stick towards the other person could reasonably cause them to fear that you might actually hit them with the stick, even if you had no intention of doing so it is harmful . Therefore, you could be held liable for assault, regardless of whether or not you were kidding.

None of the other options provided - invasion of right to privacy, libel, battery, or false imprisonment - would be appropriate in this situation since they involve different types of harm or injury. Invasion of privacy would require a violation of the person's privacy rights, libel would require making false statements that harm their reputation, battery would require actual physical contact for assault , and false imprisonment would require unlawfully restraining the person's freedom of movement.

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In James v. Bob Ross Buick, where James had been fired from a car dealership that then sent letters to customers under his name, James sued for:a. slander b. libelc. invasion of privacy d. fraude. none of the other choicesANSWER: c

Answers

under James v. Bob Ross Buick, James filed a lawsuit for invasion of privacy after being fired from a vehicle dealership that afterwards sent letters to clients under his name.

What exactly does privacy infringement entail?

A person whose privacy has been violated may be entitled to sue the offending person or entity for damages. Invasion of privacy is defined as the unauthorised entry into another person's private affairs.

What is an instance of a privacy invasion?

taking pictures or films of someone without permission inside their house or another private location; continuous telemarketing calls; leaking private information about a person who has injured or caused damage in the public

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​When a defendant files a(n) _________ he is attacking the plaintiff's pleading as not stating a cause of action or defense.

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When a defendant files a(n) "motion to dismiss," he is attacking the plaintiff's pleading as not stating a cause of action or defence because a motion to dismiss is a legal filing made by a defendant in response to a complaint filed by a plaintiff.

The correct answer is motion to dismiss.

The motion argues that the plaintiff's complaint is legally insufficient and fails to state a claim upon which relief can be granted. In other words, the defendant claims that even if everything the plaintiff says in the complaint is true, there is no legal basis for the plaintiff to recover.

The defendant may argue that the complaint is missing essential elements, that the facts alleged in the complaint do not constitute a legal claim, or that some legal doctrine, such as the statute of limitations, bar the complaint. The court will evaluate the motion to dismiss and determine whether the plaintiff has sufficiently stated a cause of action or defence.

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To be liable for an intentional tort the defendant must have:a. thought through the consequences of his action b. "considered" the consequences of his actionsc. been unaware of the consequences of his actions d. engaged in a voluntary actione. none of the other choices

Answers

To be liable for an intentional tort, the defendant must have engaged in a voluntary action intending to cause a particular result or knowing that the result was substantially certain to occur.

The correct answer is either A or B.

This means that the defendant must have acted purposefully or knowingly instead of accidentally or negligently. The defendant must have intended to cause the specific harm that occurred rather than acting recklessly or with a general disregard for the safety of others.

Intent can be established through direct evidence, such as an admission by the defendant, or through circumstantial evidence, such as the nature of the defendant's actions or statements. In some cases, intent may be inferred from the defendant's reckless or wanton behaviour, which shows a conscious disregard for the safety of others.

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