Richard and Stephen win some money and share it in the ratio 6:1. Richard gets £60 more than Stephen. How much did they get altogether?

Functions

Vertical Line Test

Let's see what we are given.

We are given a graph of an inverse of a function.

We need to figure out whether the graphed inverse function is a function or not.

By the definition of a function, we know that every x input must correlate with one y output. In layman's terms, each respective x input has its own specific y output.

This definition builds the foundation of the Vertical Line Test. We can use this simple "tool" to verify whether or not a given graph is a function or not.

When we apply the Vertical Line Test to the graphed inverse function, we can see that every x input has only one specific y output.

∴ we can conclude that the graphed inverse function is indeed a function.

The answer to the question would be A. True.

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Topic: Algebra I

Unit: Functions

Expectation is linear, meaning

E(a X + b Y) = E(a X) + E(b Y)

= a E(X) + b E(Y)

If X = 1 and Y = 0, we see that the expectation of a constant, E(a), is equal to the constant, a.

Use this property to compute the expectations:

E(X + 10) = E(X) + E(10) = $110

E(5Y) = 5 E(Y) = $450

E(X + Y) = E(X) + E(Y) = $190

Variance has a similar property:

V(a X + b Y) = V(a X) + V(b Y) + Cov(X, Y)

= a^2 V(X) + b^2 V(Y) + Cov(X, Y)

where "Cov" denotes covariance, defined by

E[(X - E(X))(Y - E(Y))] = E(X Y) - E(X) E(Y)

Without knowing the expectation of X Y, we can't determine the covariance and thus variance of the expression a X + b Y.

However, if X and Y are independent, then E(X Y) = E(X) E(Y), which makes the covariance vanish, so that

V(a X + b Y) = a^2 V(X) + b^2 V(Y)

and this is the assumption we have to make to find the standard deviations (which is the square root of the variance).

Also, variance is defined as

V(X) = E[(X - E(X))^2] = E(X^2) - E(X)^2

and it follows from this that, if X is a constant, say a, then

V(a) = E(a^2) - E(a)^2 = a^2 - a^2 = 0

Use this property, and the assumption of independence, to compute the variances, and hence the standard deviations:

V(X + 10) = V(X)  ==>  SD(X + 10) = SD(X) = $90

V(5Y) = 5^2 V(Y) = 25 V(Y)  ==>  SD(5Y) = 5 SD(Y) = $40

V(X + Y) = V(X) + V(Y)  ==>  SD(X + Y) = √[SD(X)^2 + SD(Y)^2] = √8164 ≈ $90.35

Answer:

0.13 ft/min

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that

[tex]\frac{dV}{dt}=15ft^3/min[/tex]

We have to find the increasing rate of change of height of pile  when the pile is 12 ft high.

Let d be the diameter of pile

Height of pile=h

d=h

Radius of pile,r=[tex]\frac{d}{2}=\frac{h}{2}[/tex]

Volume of pile=[tex]\frac{1}{3}\pi r^2 h=\frac{1}{12}\pi h^3[/tex]

[tex]\frac{dV}{dt}=\frac{1}{4}\pi h^2\frac{dh}{dt}[/tex]

h=12 ft

Substitute the values

[tex]15=\frac{1}{4}\pi(12)^2\frac{dh}{dt}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{dh}{dt}=\frac{15\times 4}{\pi(12)^2}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{dh}{dt}=0.13ft/min[/tex]

Answer:

Hypotenuse = 13.798 cm, Angle1 = 27.4° and Angle2 = 62.59°

Step-by-step explanation:

The first step to help us understand the question would be to draw it out.

A right angled triangle, with the two sides that make the right angle being x and y (it does not matter which way you put x and y).

I have attached the quick sketch I will refer to.

To find the length of the hypotenuse (lets call it H) we can use Pythagoras theorem as shown below

[tex]{x^{2}+y^{2}} = H^{2}[/tex]

Substitute in our values for x and y, and solve for H

[tex]{6.35^{2}+12.25^{2}} = H^{2}[/tex]

[tex]190.385 = H^{2}[/tex]

[tex]\sqrt{190.385} = H[/tex]

H = 13.79 cm

To find the other two angles of the triangle we will use trigonometry

I will first look for angle ∅. Since we have all three sides of the triangle we can use any of the three trig functions, I chose to use Tan

Tan ∅ [tex]= \frac{opposite}{adjacent}[/tex]

Substitute in our values for x and y, and solve for ∅

Tan ∅ = [tex]\frac{6.35}{12.25}[/tex]

∅ = [tex]tan^{-1} \frac{6.35}{12.25}[/tex]

∅ = 27.4°

Now do the same for angle β. I chose to use Tan again

Tan β [tex]= \frac{opposite}{adjacent}[/tex]

Substitute in our values for x and y, and solve for β

Tan β = [tex]\frac{12.25}{6.35}[/tex]

β = [tex]tan^{-1} \frac{12.25}{6.35}[/tex]

β = 62.59°

Answer:

Number of bags that Bonnie can make so that each one has the same number of candies = 48

Number of candies from bag I in each of the treat bag = 5

Number of candies from bag II in each of the treat bag = 13

Number of candies from bag III in each of the treat bag = 7

Step-by-step explanation:

Given: One bag (I) has 240 candies, one bag (II) has 624 candies and one bag (III) has 336 candies

To find: Number of bags that Bonnie can make so that each one has the same number of candies and number of each type of candies in each bag

Solution:

[tex]240=2^4\times 3\times 5\\624=2^4\times3\times13\\336=2^4\times3\times7[/tex]

Highest common factor (H.C.F) = [tex]2^4\times3=48[/tex]

So,

Number of bags that bonnie can make so that each one has the same number of candies = 48

Now,

[tex]\frac{240}{48}=5\\ \frac{240}{48}=13\\\frac{240}{48}=7[/tex]

Number of candies from bag I in each of the treat bag = 5

Number of candies from bag II in each of the treat bag = 13

Number of candies from bag III in each of the treat bag = 7

Answer:

a. 50 turns

b. 0.0114 A

c. 0.25 A, 10 V

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:-

- The required current ( Is ) = 0.5 A

- The required voltage ( Vs ) = 5 V

- Transformer is 100% efficient ( ideal )

- The number of turns in the primary coil, ( Np ) = 2200

- The Voltage generated by power station, ( Vp ) = 220 V

Find:-

a. The number of turns in the secondary coil of the transformer

b. The current supplied by the power station

c. The effect on output current and voltage when the number of turns of secondary coil are doubled.

Solution:-

- For ideal transformers that consists of a ferromagnetic core with two ends wounded by a conductive wire i.e primary and secondary.

- The power generated at the stations is sent to home via power lines and step-down before the enter our homes.

- A household receives a voltage of 220 V at one of it outlets. We are to charge a phone that requires 0.5 A and 5V for the process.

- The outlet and any electronic device is in junction with a smaller transformer.

- All transformers have two transformation ratios for current ( I ) and voltage ( V ) that is related to the ratio of number of turns in the primary and secondary.

                     Voltage Transformation = [tex]\frac{N_p}{N_s} = \frac{V_p}{V_s}[/tex]

Where,

                 Ns : The number of turns in secondary winding

- Plug in the values and evaluate ( Ns ):

                           [tex]N_s = N_p*\frac{V_s}{V_p} \\\\N_s = 2200*\frac{5}{220} \\\\N_s = 50[/tex]

Answer a: The number of turns in the secondary coil should be Ns = 50 turns.

- Similarly, the current transformation is related to the inverse relation to the number of turns in the respective coil.

                  Current Transformation = [tex]\frac{N_p}{N_s} = \frac{I_s}{I_p}[/tex]

Where,

                 Ip : The current in primary coil

- Plug in the values and evaluate ( Ip ):

                        [tex]I_p = \frac{N_s}{N_p}*I_s\\\\I_p = \frac{50}{2200}*0.5\\\\I_p = 0.0114[/tex]  

Answer b: The current in the primary coil should be Ip = 0.0114 Amp.

- The number of turns in the secondary coil are doubled . From the transformation ratios we know that that voltage is proportional to the number of turns in the respective coils. So if the turns in the secondary are doubled then the output voltage is also doubled ( assuming all other design parameters remains the same ). Hence, the output voltage is = 2*5V = 10 V

- Similary, current transformation ratio suggests that the current is inversely proportional to the number of turns in the respective coils. So if the turns in the secondary are doubled then the output current is half of the required ( assuming all other design parameters remains the same ). Hence, the output current is = 0.5*0.5 A = 0.25 A

Answer:

The first fraction at the right of 1 is [tex]\frac{7}{6}[/tex] or [tex]1\frac{1}{6}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

Marks of 6ths on a number line

Fraction 5/6 just before 1

Required

What fraction is at the right 1

To get the first fraction at the right of 1, we need to get the difference between each fraction;

This is calculated as follows;

[tex]Difference = 1 - \frac{5}{6}[/tex]

Take LCM

[tex]Difference = \frac{6 - 5}{6}[/tex]

[tex]Difference = \frac{1}{6}[/tex]

This implies that the difference between each mark is [tex]\frac{1}{6}[/tex].

To get the first mark at the right of 1;

We simply add the difference to 1;

This implies that;

[tex]Mark = 1 + \frac{1}{6}[/tex]

Take LCM

[tex]Mark = \frac{6 + 1}{6}[/tex]

[tex]Mark = \frac{7}{6}[/tex]

Convert to mixed fraction

[tex]Mark = 1\frac{1}{6}[/tex]

Hence, the first fraction at the right of 1 is [tex]\frac{7}{6}[/tex] or [tex]1\frac{1}{6}[/tex]

Answer:

63

Step-by-step explanation: The ratio from planet A to B is 100 to 3. If an elephant weight 2100 is planet a, then we are multiplying 21 to hundred. Whatever you do on the left side you have to do it on the right side and if you multiply 21 and 3 on the right side then you get 63.

Answer:

63 pounds

Step-by-step explanation:

The ratio for Planet A to Planet B is

100 : 3

Creating a proportionality with the unknown as x

=> [tex]\frac{100}{3} = \frac{2100}{x}[/tex]

Isolating x would give

x = [tex]\frac{2100 * 3}{100}[/tex]

x = 21 × 3

x = 63 pounds

Answer:

175

Step-by-step explanation:

+ × - = -

thus 199+(-24)

199-24

175

Answer: 199 + -24 = 175

Step-by-step explanation: 199 is a positive number and -24 is a negative number. If the positive number is bigger than the negative number you subtract. So forget that the - sign is there and subtract it.  

Answer:

The probability is 0.31

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the probability, we will consider the following approach. Given a particular outcome, and considering that each outcome is equally likely, we can calculate the probability by simply counting the number of ways we get the desired outcome and divide it by the total number of outcomes.

In this case, the event of interest is  choosing 3 laser printers and 3 inkjets. At first, we have a total of 25 printers and we will be choosing 6 printers at random. The total number of ways in which we can choose 6 elements out of 25 is [tex]\binom{25}{6}[/tex], where [tex]\binom{n}{k} = \frac{n!}{(n-k)!k!}[/tex]. We have that [tex]\binom{25}{6} = 177100[/tex]

Now, we will calculate the number of ways to which we obtain the desired event. We will be choosing 3 laser printers and 3 inkjets. So the total number of ways this can happen is the multiplication of the number of ways we can choose 3 printers out of 10 (for the laser printers) times the number of ways of choosing 3 printers out of 15 (for the inkjets). So, in this case, the event can be obtained in [tex]\binom{10}{3}\cdot \binom{15}{3} = 54600[/tex]

So the probability of having 3 laser printers and 3 inkjets is given by

[tex] \frac{54600}{177100} = \frac{78}{253} = 0.31[/tex]

Answer:

[tex] x = 7 \sqrt{3} [/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex] \tan \: 30 \degree = \frac{7}{x} \\ \\ \therefore \: \frac{1}{ \sqrt{3} } = \frac{7}{x} \\ \\ x = 7 \sqrt{3} \\ [/tex]

Answer:

Aisha is shorter than 43 inches.

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]x+5=48[/tex]

[tex]x=48-5[/tex]

[tex]x=43[/tex]

[tex]x >43[/tex]

Answer:

The answer is B!

Step-by-step explanation:

Test taking! <3

Answer:

The null hypothesis: there is no difference between the mean IQ level of people who were reared by their biological parents and those who were reared by someone else.

Step-by-step explanation:The null hypothesis can be a general statement mostly in statistics that proposes no difference or no relationship between 2 phenomena etc

Researchers always carry out a study to test against the null hypothesis ie the opposite of the null hypothesis showing that there is a difference. In this study, the researchers aim is to establish that there is a difference between the mean IQ level of people who were reared by their biological parents and those who were reared by someone else. This goes against the null which states that

there is no difference between the mean IQ level of people who were reared by their biological parents and those who were reared by someone else.

Answer:

-26

Step-by-step explanation:

2(x-4)=3(x+6)

2x-8=3x+18

2x-2x -8 = 3x-2x +18

-8 =X+18

-8-18=x+18-18

-26 = x

The value of the unknown number is -26.

Given that, twice the difference of a number and 4 is equal to three times the sum of the number and 6.

In mathematics, an equation is a formula that expresses the equality of two expressions, by connecting them with the equals sign =.

Let the unknown number x.

Twice the difference of a number and 4 = 2(x-4)

Three times the sum of the number and 6 = 3(x+6)

So, equation is 2(x-4)=3(x+6)

⇒ 2x-8=3x+18

⇒ 3x-2x=-8-18

⇒ x=-26

Therefore, the value of the unknown number is -26.

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Answer:  EF = 15

Step-by-step explanation:

The given description is that of an isosceles triangle. The base angles are congruent, therefore the sides opposite of those angles are also congruent.

The base angles are ∠E and ∠G and the vertex angle is ∠F.

The sides opposite to the base angles are EF and FG.

Thus, EF ≡ FG.

Since FG = 15 and FG = EF, then 15 = EF.

Based on the definition of an isosceles triangle, the length of EF in the triangle is: 15 units.

An isosceles triangle has two sides that are congruent. The angles opposite these congruent sides are also congruent.

ΔEFG is an isosceles triangle. The congruent sides are, FG and EF.

Therefore, EF = FG = 15 units.

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Answer & Step-by-step explanation:

For this problem we can just set up an equation and equal it to 180.

(2y) + (y + 10) + 50 = 180

Combine like terms.

3y + 60 = 180

Subtract 60 from 180.

3y = 120

Divide 120 by 3.

y = 40

So, the value of y is 40°

Answer:

The 90th percentile for the distribution of the total contributions is $6,342,525.

Step-by-step explanation:

To solve this question, we need to understand the normal probability distribution and the central limit theorem.

Normal probability distribution

Problems of normally distributed samples are solved using the z-score formula.

In a set with mean [tex]\mu[/tex] and standard deviation [tex]\sigma[/tex], the zscore of a measure X is given by:

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the pvalue, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.

Central Limit Theorem

The Central Limit Theorem estabilishes that, for a normally distributed random variable X, with mean [tex]\mu[/tex] and standard deviation [tex]\sigma[/tex], the sampling distribution of the sample means with size n can be approximated to a normal distribution with mean [tex]\mu[/tex] and standard deviation [tex]s = \frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n}}[/tex].

For a skewed variable, the Central Limit Theorem can also be applied, as long as n is at least 30.

For sums of size n, the mean is [tex]\mu*n[/tex] and the standard deviation is [tex]s = \sqrt{n}*\sigma[/tex]

In this question:

[tex]n = 2025, \mu = 3125*2025 = 6328125, \sigma = \sqrt{2025}*250 = 11250[/tex]

The 90th percentile for the distribution of the total contributions

This is X when Z has a pvalue of 0.9. So it is X when Z = 1.28. Then

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

By the Central Limit Theorem

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{s}[/tex]

[tex]1.28 = \frac{X - 6328125}{11250}[/tex]

[tex]X - 6328125 = 1.28*11250[/tex]

[tex]X = 6342525[/tex]

The 90th percentile for the distribution of the total contributions is $6,342,525.

The right answer is 100 units^2

please see the attached picture for full solution

Hope it helps

Good luck on your assignment,

Answer:

y=7000+14^t

Step-by-step explanation:

This equation shows that the original population of bats was 7000 and grows exponentially at a rate of 14% per year.

I put the graph below so you can see it.

In this exercise we have to identify how to write an exponential function from the data informed in the text, in this way we find that:

[tex]y=7000+14^t[/tex]

From the information given in the statement we find that:

Then writing this function as:

[tex]y=7000+14^t[/tex]

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Answer:

y+8.5 = 17.2

y = 17.2-8.5

= 8.7

Answer:

y+8.5 = 17.2

y = 17.2-8.5

= 8.7

Step-by-step explanation:

yes the answer above me is correct

Answer:

20-39 => 2

40-59 => 1

60-79 => 1

80-99 => 6

100-119 => 5

Answer: 2, 1, 1, 6, 5

Step-by-step explanation:

20-39

2 | 3

3 | 9

40-59

5 | 0

60-79

7 | 5

80-99

8 | 1 2 4

9 | 3 9 9

100-119

10 | 1 1 5 6

11 | 1

Answer: The 9 in the second term is a coefficient that is true. I think that is the only thing that is true. There may be one more thing that is true.

The 10 in the third term is not  a coefficient.

The 2 is not a constant

the x is not an exponent.

those are the ones that I'm sure about.

Please correct anything if i'm wrong.

:)

Answer:

160 yards

Step-by-step explanation:

P=2l+2w

P=2(3w-8)+2(w)

432=2(3w-8)+2(w)

432=6w-16+2w

432=8w-16

432+16=8w

448=8w

w=448/8

w=56yards

l=3(56)-8

l=168-8=160yards

Hey there! I'm happy to help!

Let's add up all of these contributions.

100+300+150+450=1000

However, this is annual. We want monthly. So, we simply divide by 12.

1000/12≈83.33

Therefore, the monthly expense is $83.33

I hope that this helps! Have a wonderful day!

Answer:

3x-5=2x+6

x-5=6

x=11

Answer:

1)

Volume of pyramid = 1/3(Ab)(h)

Where Ab is the area of base, h is height

Volume of cone = 1/3(Ab)(h)

a) Their formula for finding volume is same. Also, their painting heads are same.

b) Pyramids have a tetragonal base while cones have a polygonal base

2) Pyramids

Volume of cone = (1/3) πr²h

Since Area of a circle = πr²

So

Volume of pyramid = (1/3)(A)(h)

So we can use the formula of a circle in cone's formula

Answer:

i dont know but i want points

Step-by-step explanation:

hehehe

Answer:

1,620in

Step-by-step explanation:

LxWxH

36 x 15 x 3 = 1,620 in

Answer:

1620

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

153 square feet is the area

Answer:

153 ft^2

Step-by-step explanation:

If the top side were 24 ft long and the right side 10 ft long, you'd have a yellow rectangle with area 10 ft * 24 ft = 240 ft^2.

Now we subtract the parts that are missing.

3 ft * 13 ft = 39 ft^2

3 ft * 16 ft = 48 ft^2

240 ft^2 - 39 ft^2 - 48 ft^2 = 153 ft^2

Answer:

A. The probability that a randomly selected sports car from this manufacturer will be white with gray upholstery is P=0.12.

B. Assuming that we know the car has tan upholstery, the probability that the car is either silver or white is P=0.50.

Step-by-step explanation:

We first start by stating that the events "exterior color" and "leather color" are independent, so the probability of the outcomes of each event is not affected by the outcomes of the other event.

A. The probability of having a car that is white (W) with gray upholstery (G) is equal to the probability of having a car that is white multiplied by the probability of having a car with gray leather upholstery. Mathematically, this is:

[tex]P(\text{W\&G})=P(W)\cdot P(G)=0.3\cdot 0.4=0.12[/tex]

B. As the events are independent, the probability of having a silver or white car, given that the car has tan upholstery, is the same as the probabiltiy of having a silver or white car:

[tex]P(S\,or\,W | T)=P(S\,or\,W)=P(S)+P(W)=0.20+0.30=0.50[/tex]

Answer:

It is worth $4 to insure the mailing.

Step-by-step explanation:

The random variable X can be defined as the money value.

The PDA costs, $414.

It is provided that there is a 3% chance it will be lost or damaged in the mail.

So, there is 97% chance it will not be lost or damaged in the mail.

The insurance costs $4.

If the PDA is lost or damaged in the mail when there is no insurance the money value would be of -$414.

And if the PDA is lost or damaged in the mail when there is an insurance the money value would be of $414 - $4 = $410.

Compute the expected value of money as follows:

[tex]\text{E (X)}=(0.97\times 410)+(0.03\times -414)[/tex]

          [tex]=397.7-12.42\\=385.28[/tex]

The expected value of money in case the PDA is lost or damaged in the mail or not is $385.28.

Thus, it is worth $4 to insure the mailing.