james​ Lawson's Bed and​ Breakfast, in a small historic Mississippi​ town, must decide how to subdivide​ (remodel) the large old home that will become its inn. There are three​ alternatives: Option A would modernize all baths and combine​ rooms, leaving the inn with four​ suites, each suitable for two to four adults. Option B would modernize only the second​ floor; the results would be six​ suites, four for two to four​ adults, two for two adults only. Option C​ (the status quo​ option) leaves all walls intact. In this​ case, there are eight rooms​ available, but only two are suitable for four​ adults, and four rooms will not have private baths. Below are the details of profit and demand patterns that will accompany each​ option: Annual Profit under Various Demand Patterns Alternatives High p Average p A​ (modernize all) B​ (modernize 2nd) C​ (status quo) This exercise contains only part b. ​b) The option with the highest expected value for James​ Lawson's Bed and Breakfast is ▼ B C A ​, with an expected value of ​$ nothing ​(round your response to the nearest whole​ number).

Answer:

safety stock = 76 units

Explanation:

z-score for 97% = 2.17009

standard deviation of lead time = 35/600 = 5.83%

average demand during lead time = 600 sheets

safety stock = Z-score x standard deviation of lead time x average demand during lead time

safety stock = 2.17009 x 0.058333 x 600 = 75.95 units ≈ 76 units

Safety stock refers to the number of extra units that a company needs to have in inventory in order to avoid stockouts.

Answer: 150%

Explanation:

Based on the question,

Direct materials = $400 + $200 = $600

Direct labor cost = $300 + $500 = $800

Overhead = Closing WIP - Direct material cost - Direct labor cost

= $2600 - $600 - $800

= $1200

The predetermined overhead rate based on the direct labor will be calculated as:

= Overhead / Direct labour cost

= $1200/$800

= 1.50

= 150%

Answer:

Decrease in one asset and an increase in another asset

Explanation:

The journal entry to record the transfer of units to the next department in process accounting is a(n):

i. Decrease in one asset

ii. Increase in another asset

Answer:

1) Character and job code

2) date, location, budget

3) identify your goals and objectives

4) public relations

Explanation:

When considering a committee member for a certain delegated role, a leader must select a person judged to have impeccable character and whose job code corresponds to the role you want to delegate to him/her.  

When planning the logistics of an event, a suitable date must  be chosen, an accessible and suitable location must be selected and the budget must be fair and manageable.

At the development phase of event planning, the event planner must identify exactly what the goals and objectives of the event are before other factors are considered.

The media or marketing director has the important role of promoting the image of the organization by engaging the public in issues regarding the organization. Hiss/her primary role has to do with public relations.

Answer:

$80 (in 2020)

Explanation:

I will assume that this question takes place during the current year (2020). An employee is required to include as income all transportation benefits that exceed $270 per month. In this case, free parking is considered a transportation benefit and Tim must report $350 - $270 = $80 as taxable benefits. The exclusion amount varies depending on the year, e.g. it was $265 in 2019.

The amount that should be included in the gross income per month should be $80.

The employee should needed to involved the income in terms of transportation benefits that should be more than $270 per month. Since the free parking should be considered as the  transportation benefit

So here the amount associated should be

= $350 - $270

= $80

hence, The amount that should be included in the gross income per month should be $80.

Learn more about amount here: https://brainly.com/question/24316713

Answer:

increase by 400 billion dollars

Explanation:

marginal propensity to consume = mpc

tax multiplier = -mpc/1-mpc

from our question we were given mpc to be 0.8

-0.8/1-0.8

= -0.8/0.2

= -4

change in output = -4(-100)

= 400 billion dollars

for a $100 tax decrease, output will increase by $100 billion x 4

= $400 billion

Answer:

A. within a reasonable time after detecting the defect.

Explanation:

If a buyer accepts defective goods and wants to hold the seller liable, the buyer must give the seller notice of the defect within a reasonable time after detecting the defect.

If the buyer takes a longer time to notify the seller, the buyer may be held responsible for damaging the goods and deprived of any refund or compensation attached to defective goods.

Answer:

Please see below

Explanation:

A. Journal entry for JFK Corp, July 1, 2020 to record the sale of receivable without recourse.

Cash. Dr.

[(100 - 4 - 1.5) × 300,000]. $283,500

Due from factor Dr

(0.4 × 300,000) $12,000

Loss on sale of receivable. Dr

(0.015 × 300,000) $4,500

To Accounts receivable Cr $300,000

B. Journal entry for LBJ finance Corporation on July 1, 2020 to record the purchase of receivables without recourse.

Accounts receivable Dr $300,000

To due from factor Cr $12,000

To Financing revenue Cr $4,500

To cash account Cr $283,500

Answer:

The right solution is "$30".

Explanation:

Answer:

The various cost-benefit analyses that companies must take into account when they formulate an IT strategic plan are:

Explanation:

To formulate an IT strategic plan means to create an IT plan that helps with the organization's long-term and short-term objectives. Many times there are several alternatives to select from. The alternative with the greatest amount of benefit and at the least cost to the organization is the best.

A comparison between the cost and the benefits of each alternative is called cost-benefit analyses. Note that "analyses" is plural.

Some of the methods that are utilized to evaluate each alternative plant for costs against benefits are:

Net Present Value (NPV) approach adopts the investment point of view in the analysis of the cost and the benefits accruable from an IT Strategic Plan.

NPV examines the present value of cash inflows and the present value of cash outflows over a period of time with a view to compare the difference between both factors. When applied to IT strategies, it is assumed that the benefits accruable from the IT project can be compared in monetary terms. A project with a positive NPV is a viable project. Those with zero NPV will return exactly the amount invested. A negative NPV is a loss. The project with the highest NPV is the most valuable in terms of cost versus benefits.

Return on Investment (ROI)

This approach is similar to the NPV. The project with the highest ROI and the least cost will pass for the best IT strategy.

Return on Investment is simply the result of dividing the Net Profits by the Initial cost of the investment. It is measured in percentages. The IT plan with the highest percentage is the best.

Breakeven Analysis

This also assumes that the expected results from the IT plan are measurable in monetary terms. A company is said to have broken even when they have recovered the exact amount invested into a business.

The shorter the breakeven period, the better the business/IT strategy.

Cheers

Answer:

a. Barcelona can replace less effective performers with better performers.

Explanation:

As per the conversation i.e. you cant give the training to the people for enthusiastic them as you want to hire them also it is  a transient business

So here you need to fire the old employees who are less effective and hire new employees who are enthusiastic that ultimately benefits the company

Therefore option a is correct

and the same is to be considered

Answer and Explanation:

To calculate free cash flow to equity

Calculate net income given return on assets 2% and assets $475

Return on assets = Net income / Assets

Substitute:

= 2 % = Net income / $ 475

=$ 475 x 0.02 = $ 9.5

Calculate net income given return on assets 2% and assets $320

Return on Assets = Net income / Assets

Return on assets = 2 % = Net income / $ 320

=$ 320 x 0.02 = $ 6.4

Given return on equity =13

Return on equity = Net income / Equity

Substitute:

13 = $ 9.5 / Equity

Equity = $ 9.5 / 13

Equity = $ 0.73 ( at end of 5 years)

Therefore free cash flow to equity in year 0=

13 = $ 6.4 / Equity

= $ 6.4 / 13

= $ 0.49

To calculate to total value of stock = beginning value given by FCFE(0)*(1+g)/(r-g) + terminal value, we find

Compounded annual growth rate in 5 years = ($ 475 / $ 320)1/5 - 1

= 0.082

= 8.2 %

Beginning value= FCFE(0) x (1+g) / (r - g)

= 0.49 x ( 1+ 0.082 ) / (0.12 - 0.082)

= 0.49 x 1.082 / 0.038

= $ 13.95

Terminal value = $ 0.73 x (1+ 0.04) / ( 0.12 - 0.04) x (1.12)5

= $5.42

Total value = beginning value + Terminal value = $ 13.95 + $ 5.42 = $ 19.37

Answer: $2 million in Current liabilities and $6 million in long-term liabilities

Explanation:

Current liabilities are those obligations that a company owes that will be settled in a period/ year.

The first payment of $2 million in 2016 has already been paid so the total amount remaining on the 31st of December is $8 million.

Of this $8 million, a payment of $2 million will be made in a year in 2017 so this will be recorded as Current liabilities as it is a year from 2016.

The remaining $6 million will be long-term as they will be paid in more than a year being 2018, 2019 and 2020.

Explanation:

1.negosyante.

2.kapital.

3.ng sapat na kaalaman sa pang negosyo.

4.inquiry

5.flayears

Answer: price of advance ticket = $40

and price of same day ticket= $20

Explanation:

let one advance ticket be x

let one same day ticket be y

The combined cost of one advance ticket and one same-day ticket is $60

so we have that

x + y = $60

For one performance, 40 advance tickets and 30 same-day tickets were sold of which the tota;l amount was $2,200

40x +30y= 2220

we have

x + y = $60... eqn 1

40x +30y= 2220... eqn 2

by substitution,

x+y = 60

y = 60-x

putting the value of y in equation 2

40x  + 30(60-x) =2200

40x + 1800-30x=2200

40x-30x= 2200-1800

10x=400

x = 400/10 = 40

to get y

x+y =60

40 + y=60

y = 60-40 =20

Therefore price of advance ticket,x  = $40

and price of same day ticket, y = $20

Answer:

$158,000

Explanation:

Sales                                    $600,000

Less: Cost of goods sold    $430,000

Less: Interest expenses      $12,000

Pretax income from             $158,000

continuing operations

Answer:

focus on a client-server model

Explanation:

In this scenario, the best advice that can be given would be to focus on a client-server model. Since almost all of the applications that will be used by the employees are server-based it would be best to focus on only implementing the minimum necessary hardware for the 30 employees. So much so that they are able to access the server correctly but without adding excessive hardware power that would simply be overkill. Since the company already has all the necessary LAN switches it would be fairly simple to connect all of these machines together and 50 Mbps is more than enough for data transfer.

Answer:

$0

Explanation:

The computation of the their allowable child and dependent care credit is shown below:

In the case when the income is below $35,000 than full 35% would be allowed

But the qualified child expense would be limited to $6,000

So, here the amount would be

= $6,000 × 35%

= $1,860

Already there is a pre credit tax liability so $0 should be considered as it would not received any credit

Answer:

Penguin LLC

The types of information  that Penguin LLC must accumulate and report on its Schedule K include information on each partner's income, losses, deductions, credits, dividends received from other investments.  Penguin LLC is expected to submit this schedule with the detailed information as specified while each business partner in Penguin LLC, a partnership or S corporation collaborates the information by filling their own K-1.

Explanation:

The purpose of Schedule K and K-1 is to report each partner's share of the partnership's earnings, losses, deductions, and credits to the US Internal Revenue Service.

Answer:

Cappuccino machines should be produced in Atlanta and coffee makers in Fort Worth. The Fort Worth facility would need to operate 100 hours per week and the Atlanta facility would need to operate 140 hours per week.

Total costs associated to operating the facilities = ($2,400 x 100) + ($600 x 140) = $324,000

Explanation:

Since there is not constraint regarding the total number of labor hours that each plant can operate, then we must choose the plant that operates at the lower cost. The only restriction is total time = 7 days x 24 hours = 168 hours per week:

production costs Atlanta:

coffee maker = $600 / 160 = $3.75 per unit

cappuccino machine = $600 / 200 = $3 per unit

production costs Fort Worth:

coffee maker = $2,400 / 800 = $3 per unit

cappuccino machine = $2,400 / 200 = $6 per unit

Cappuccino machines should be produced in Atlanta and coffee makers in Fort Worth. The Fort Worth facility would need to operate 100 hours per week and the Atlanta facility would need to operate 140 hours per week.

Answer:

100% equity financing from personal investments is better

Explanation:

100% equity financing option.

Expected annual return on the project = $30,000

Lost investment opportunity = 8.5% * 250,000 = $21,250.

Therefore incremental return from 100% equity financing option = $30,000 - $21,250 = $8,750 annually.

60% debt and 40% equity financing option.

Expected annual return on the project = $30,000

Lost investment opportunity = 8.5% * 40% * 250,000 = $8,500.

Interest rate on debt = 9% * 60% * 250,000 = $13,500.

Therefore incremental return = $30,000 - $8,500 - $13,500 = $8,000 annually.

Since the 100% financing gives a higher return than the debt-equity option, the  100% financing option is better.

Answer:

A. $120,000

B. $0

C. $120,000

Explanation:

A. Calculation to Determine NP’s recognized gain

Using this formula

Recognized gain =Insurance reimbursement-Adjusted basis

Let plug in the formula

Recognized gain =$650,000-$530,000

Recognized gain=$120,000

B. NP will not recognize the realized gain of the amount of $120,000 ($650,000-$530,000) reason been that NP have spent the amount of $650,000 on the replacement of property.

C. NP will have to recognize the whole amount of the gain realized gain which is $120,000 ($650,000-$530,000) reason been that replacement property was not acquired within the taxable year when the gain was been realized

Answer: $4180

Explanation:

From the question, we are told that Chris purchases a living room furniture set for $4,345 and has a one-year, no interest, no money down, deferred payment plan. We are further told that She he made a $15 monthly payment for the first 11 months.

The total amount paid for the first 11 months will be:

= $15 × 11

= $165

Since he has to pay the total amount for 12 months, the amount that Chris will pay in the last month of this plan will be:

= $4345 - $165

= $4180

Answer:

please mark brainliest!

Explanation:

More income may mean more stress and less fun, other studies have associated higher incomes with higher levels of stress, increased likelihood of divorce, and less enjoyment of small activities.

Answer:

Steve's Cabinets

a. Journal Entries:

Debit Raw materials $19,500

Credit Accounts Payable $19,500

To record the purchase of raw materials on account.

Debit Manufacturing Overhead $1,150

Credit Raw materials $1,150

To record the issue of supplies from inventory.

Debit Raw materials $11,900

Credit Accounts Payable $11,900

To record the purchase of raw materials on account.

Debit Accounts Payable $19,500

Credit Cash Account $19,500

To record payment for raw materials on account.

Debit Work in Process $14,300

Credit Raw materials $14,300

To record the issue of raw materials to production.

Debit Work in Process $23,500

Credit Wages Expense $23,500

To record the transfer of factory wages to production.

Debit Utilities, etc expense $21,900

Credit Cash Account $21,900

Debit Manufacturing overhead $21,900

Credit Utilities, etc expenses $21,900

To record miscellaneous plant expenses.

Debit Work in Process $30,550

Credit Manufacturing overhead $30,550

To apply 130% of direct labor cost of #23,500 to production.

Debit Manufacturing Overhead $10,700

Credit Depreciation Expense $10,700

To recognize depreciation expense.

b. T-accounts

Raw Materials

Account Titles               Debit        Credit

Beginning balance   $ 30,690

Accounts Payable        19,500

Manufacturing overhead               $1,150

Accounts Payable        11,900

Work in Process                            14,300

Ending balance                         $ 46,640

                                $62,090    $62,090

Accounts Payable

Account Titles               Debit        Credit

Raw materials                              $19,500

Raw materials                                 11,900

Cash Account              $19,500

Ending balance               11,900

Manufacturing Overhead

Account Titles               Debit        Credit

Raw materials            $1,150

Expenses                  21,900

Depreciation             10,700

Work in Process                          $30,550

Underapplied: Cost of goods sold 3,200

Work in Process

Account Titles               Debit        Credit

Beginning balance    $ 7,300

Raw materials           $14,300

Direct labor                23,500

Manuf. Overhead      30,550

Finished Goods                         $48,820

Ending balance                         $26,830

Finished Goods Inventory

Account Titles               Debit        Credit

Beginning balance $ 33,900

Work in Process        48,820

Cost of goods sold                      $53,730

Ending balance                           $ 28,990

Cost of goods sold

Account Titles               Debit        Credit

Finished goods           $53,730

Manufacturing overhead:

 Underapplied               3,200

Income Statement                      $56,930

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

Account Balances of Steve’s Cabinets for April.

                                              Beginning    Ending

Materials Inventory                 $ 30,690       ?

Work-in-Process Inventory           7,300       ?

Finished Goods Inventory         33,900  $ 28,990

Cost of Goods Sold                            53,730

Answer: Wages are flexible if the economy is self-regulating.

Explanation:

Classical economists believe that the economy is self-regulating. This means that if the economy is not at equilibrium, it will return to equilibrium if it is left without interference.

For this to happen, inputs such as wages have to flexible to enable them to adjust to market conditions and thus take the Economy back to equilibrium.

For instance, if there is a recession, wages will reduce so that the prices that the producers can charge will reduce as well which will enable supply to match demand and bring the economy back to equilibrium.

Answer: D= k-pP + aA + tT +qQ

Explanation:

The simplest model for describing demand in terms of these variables will be given as D= k-pP + aA + tT +qQ

where,

D = Consumer demand

P = Price

A = Advertising

T = Transportation

Q = Product quality

Based on the model, when there's a rise in the price, there'll be a reduction in the demand while when there is an increase in advertisment, product quality and transportation, this will bring about an increase in the demand.

The simplest model for describing demand in terms of these variables is D= k-pP + aA + tT +qQ

The simplest model for explaining demand in terms of these variables will be given as

D= k-pP + aA + tT +qQ

Here

D = Consumer demand

P = Price

A = Advertising

T = Transportation

Q = Product quality

Learn more about demand here: https://brainly.com/question/15182235

Answer:

a. $1,916.00

b. $‭30,656‬

c. $‭7,617‬

Explanation:

a. As they are depositing a set amount every 6 months, this is an annuity. The $36,273 is the future value of the annuity in 8 years.

n = 8 years * 6 = 16 semi annual periods

rate = 4.4/ 2 = 2.2% every 6 months

Future value = Amount * (([1 + i]^n) - 1 )/i

36,273 = Amount * (([1 + 2.2%]^16) - 1 )/2.2%

36,273 = Amount * 18.931485

Amount = 36,273/18.931485

= $1,916.00

b. Total amount deposited

= 16 * 1,916

= $‭30,656‬

c. Total amount of interest earned;

= Amount in fund - Total deposited

= 38,273 - 30,656

= $‭7,617‬

Answer:

$12.50

Explanation:

Calculation of Equivalent units of production with respect to conversion costs

Ending Work In Process (2,500 × 20%)                                               500

Completed and Transferred Out (54,000  × 100%)                        54,000

Equivalent units of production with respect to conversion costs 54,500

Calculation of the conversion cost per equivalent unit

cost per equivalent unit = Total Cost ÷ Total Equivalent Units

                                        = ($30,430 + $650,820) ÷ 54,500

                                        = $12.50

Answer: $2500

Explanation:

Gross profit is gotten when costs are subtracted from sales. Deferred gross profit is the cash that hasn't been gotten by a business.

The percentage on gross profit percentage will be calculated as:

= ($40000-$30000)/$40000 × 100

= $10,000/$40,000 × 100

= 0.25 × 100

= 25%

Deffered gross profit will now be calculated by multiplying the gross profit percentage by the cash to be cash to be collected. This will be:

=$10000 × 25%

= $2500

The deferred gross profit that exists as of the end of year 2 is $2500