HELP NOW WHOEVER ANSWERS FIRST WILL GIVE BRAINLYIST

Answer:

The rule for the translations can be written as T -3,1(x,y).

The rule for translations can be written as (x,y)➡️(x-3,y+1).

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

A, and D

Step-by-step explanation:

Took Unit test edge 2022

Answer:

64 outfits I think.

Step-by-step explanation:

The number of the different outfits do Damian have to choose is 600.

A permutation is an act of arranging the objects or elements in order.

Combinations are the way of selecting objects or elements from a group of objects or collections, in such a way the order of the objects does not matter.

Different outfits do Damian have to choose, will be;

⇒3C₁×5C₁×8C₁×5C₁

⇒3×5×8×5

⇒600

Hence,the number of the different outfits do Damian have to select is 600.

To learn more about the permutation and combination, refer:

https://brainly.com/question/13387529

#SPJ2

Answer:

2   1/4 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

1/4 per 1 foot so if there are 9 feet it would be 9/4 then converte that to a proper fraction which is 2  1/4

Answer:

0

200

100

50

150

Step-by-step explanation:

0% of 200 = 0

100% of 200

= ( 100 / 100 ) x 200

= 1 x 200

= 200

50% of 200

= ( 100% of 200 ) / 2

= 200 / 2

= 100

25% of 200

= ( 50% of 200 ) / 2

= 100 / 2

= 50

75% of 200

= ( 75 / 100 ) x 200

= ( 75 x 200 ) / 100

= 75 x 2

= 150

Answer: I think it's 40

Step-by-step explanation:

I don't know, I just need points. If you take the 640 and divide it by the nearest angular velocity, then square it, then divide by the radius, you get Bolivia

Answer:

This answer is A

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Subtraction. 10.6 is your answer.

Step-by-step explanation:

14 - 3.4 = 10.6

subtract the rock's volume from the volume of the water.

Answer=D, Y=55x + 4. This is the answer.......

Btw: this is my first answer I done ;)

Answer:

Lara should buy 8 boxes

Step-by-step explanation:

To start we would need to do

72/10

since 72 isn't a multiple of ten we can round it down to 70, then do

70/10=7

since we still have two teeth, we can put them in their own box so

7+1=8

Answer:

2X-Y = 13

-3X+2Y = -18

(2X-3X-Y+2Y) = 13-18

-X +Y= -5

Hi,

To add two fraction, they must have  the same denominator.

So  5/6  =  10/12

Now :   10/12 + 1/12 = 11/12

Answer:

D is the correct option

hope it helps you

please mark me as brainlist

Answer:

g (1) = -5(1) -4

-5-4

-9............. .......

Step-by-step explanation:

-5(1)-4=-5-4=-9 Answer

hope it helps

Answer:

The answer is 119

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

119

Step-by-step explanation:

There is a reason why the answer is 119

First, lets take a look at your perfect squares chart ( by tens )

10 x 10 = 100

20 x 20 = 400

30 x 30 = 900

40 x 40 = 1600

50 x 50 = 2500

60 x 60 = 3600

70 x 70 = 4900

80 x 80 = 6400

90 x 90 = 8100

100 x 100 = 10000

110 x 110 = 12100

120 x 120 = 14400

we know that 12100 < 14161 < 14400, so it has to be in between the square root of 110 and the square root of 120

111 x 111 = 12321

112 x 112 = 12544

113 x 113 = 12769

114 x 114 = 12996

115 x 115 = 13225

116 x 116 = 13456

117 x 117 = 13689

118 x 118 = 13924

119 x 119 = 14161

We found out that the square root of 119 = 14161

Therefore, the square root of 119 = 14161

If you want to find out a quicker way to do this, comment me below

Answer:

X = 3

Step-by-step explanation:

x= 6 x 1/2

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The answer is 4/8 or 1/2 pie

Answer:

The answer is 4/8 or 1/2 pie

Have an amazing day :)

Answer: $192.50

Step-by-step explanation:

wages for 40 hrs + wages for overtime work

$160.00 + 6hrs × $5.00 + $2.50 (1/2 hrs)

$192.50

Credit: anjalijalan3126

834,692

If the number is less than 5, you keep the the 90 the same.

If the number is more than 5, the new number would be 834,700.

The answer is

Answer:

QPN and TSU

Step-by-step explanation:

They're both exterior angles and they are both alternate to each other.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

65÷b+8×4=20

Put the value of b=5 in equation

65÷5+8×4=20

According to BDMAS rule

13+32=20

45=20

Bring the terms on one side

45-20=25 Answer

Answer:

false

Step-by-step explanation:

use bidmas :)

ok, let's rewrite this for b = 5

65 ÷ 5 + 8 × 4 = 20

now put brackets

(65 ÷ 5) + (8 × 4) = 20

          (13) + (32) = 20

              13 + 32 = 45

                     45 ≠ 20

false

hope this helped and good luck!

-cheesetoasty

Answer:

m=w+6

Step-by-step explanation:

Use 2 points to find the slope, which is 1.

The y intercept is 6

Answer:

400 pick mine as Brainlest

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

It is 400

Step-by-step explanation:

If you reverse it to make it easier on yourself.

500-100 =400

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The correct rule for y in terms of x is

y = 3x - 4

we can check even

here when x = 1

y = 3 * 1 - 4 = - 1

similarly

when x = 2

y = 3 * 2 - 4 = 2

and so on you can check.

hope it helps :)

Answer:

the rule is y=3x-4

Step-by-step explanation:

m=y2-y1/x2-x1

m=2--1/2-1

m= 3/1

m=3

general equation of a line,

y=mx+c

if y=3x+c

if x=1 y=-1

-1=3+c

-4=c

therefore y=3x-4

Answer:

52.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Find inner square (7 * 7 = 49), then find outer triangles (.5*7=3.5 for both) then u get 52.5 plz mark 5 str, helpfull, and brainliest!

Answer:

34

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

0.0814 = 8.14% probability that at least one of the women has a Chlamydia infection

Step-by-step explanation:

For each women, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they have a Chlamydia infection, or they do not. The probability of a woman having the infection is independent of any other women. This means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

In which [tex]C_{n,x}[/tex] is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]

And p is the probability of X happening.

The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention reports that the rate of Chlamydia infections among U.S. women ages 20 to 24 is 2791.5 per 100,000.

This means that:

[tex]p = \frac{2791.5}{100000} = 0.027915[/tex]

Take a random sample of three U.S. women in this age group.

This means that [tex]n = 3[/tex]

What is the probability that at least one of the women has a Chlamydia infection?

This is:

[tex]P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0)[/tex]

In which

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 0) = C_{3,0}.(0.027915)^{0}.(1-0.027915)^{3} = 0.9186[/tex]

[tex]P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0) = 1 - 0.9186 = 0.0814[/tex]

0.0814 = 8.14% probability that at least one of the women has a Chlamydia infection

Answer:

z less than -2

Step-by-step explanation:

z negative times negative is positive and 1 x 7 is 7

z+7 less than 5

z less than 5 - 7 because if a positive number crosses the sign it becomes negative

z less than -2 because 5-7 is -2

Answer:

B

$2.730 divided by 6 equals 455

$5,496 divided by 12 equals 458

458-455=3 so the answer is B