A float valve, regulating the flow of water into a reservoir, is shown in the figure. The spherical float (half of the sphere is submerged) is 0.1553 m in diameter. AOB is the weightless link carrying the float at one end, and a valve at the other end which closes the pipe through which flows into the reservoir. The link is mounted on a frictionless hinge at O, and the angle AOB is 135o. The length of OA is 253 mm and the distance between the center of the float and the hinge is 553 mm. When the flow is stopped AO will be vertical. The valve is to be pressed on to the seat with a force of 10,53 N to be completely stop the flow in the reservoir. It was observed that the flow of water is stopped, when the free surface of water in the reservoir is 353 mm below the hinge at O. Determine the weight of the float sphere.
Answers
Answer:
9.29 N . . . . weight of 0.948 kg sphere
Explanation:
The sum of torques on the link BOA is zero, so we have ...
(right force at A)(OA) = (up force at B)(OB·sin(135°))
Solving for the force at B, we have ...
up force at B = (10.53 N)(253 mm)/((553 mm)/√2) ≈ 6.81301 N
This force is due to the difference between the buoyant force on the float sphere and the weight of the float sphere. Dividing by the acceleration due to gravity, it translates to the difference in mass between the water displaced and the mass of the sphere.
∆mass = (6.81301 N)/(9.8 m/s^2) = 0.695205 kg
__
The center of the sphere of diameter 0.1553 m is below the waterline by ...
(553 mm)cos(45°) -(353 mm) = 38.0300 mm
The volume of the spherical cap of radius 155.3/2 = 77.65 mm and height 77.65+38.0300 = 115.680 mm can be found from the formula ...
V = (π/3)h^3(3r -h) = (π/3)(115.680^2)(3·77.65 -115.68) mm^3 ≈ 1.64336 L
So the mass of water contributing to the buoyant force is 1.64336 kg. For the net upward force to correspond to a mass of 0.695305 kg, the mass of the float sphere must be ...
1.64336 kg -0.695205 kg ≈ 0.948 kg
The weight of the float sphere is then (9.8 m/s^2)·(0.948 kg) = 9.29 N
The weight of the 0.948 kg float sphere is about 9.29 N.
Related Questions
Initially when 1000.00 mL of water at 10oC are poured into a glass cylinder, the height of the water column is 1000.00 mm. The water and its container are heated to 70oC. Assuming no evaporation, what then will be the depth of the water column if the coefficient of thermal expansion for the glass is 3.8*10-6 mm/mm peroC ?
Answers
Answer:
[tex]\mathbf{h_2 =1021.9 \ mm}[/tex]
Explanation:
Given that :
The initial volume of water [tex]V_1[/tex] = 1000.00 mL = 1000000 mm³
The initial temperature of the water [tex]T_1[/tex] = 10° C
The height of the water column h = 1000.00 mm
The final temperature of the water [tex]T_2[/tex] = 70° C
The coefficient of thermal expansion for the glass is ∝ = [tex]3.8*10^{-6 } mm/mm \ per ^oC[/tex]
The objective is to determine the the depth of the water column
In order to do that we will need to determine the volume of the water.
We obtain the data for physical properties of water at standard sea level atmospheric from pressure tables; So:
At temperature [tex]T_1 = 10 ^ 0C[/tex] the density of the water is [tex]\rho = 999.7 \ kg/m^3[/tex]
At temperature [tex]T_2 = 70^0 C[/tex] the density of the water is [tex]\rho = 977.8 \ kg/m^3[/tex]
The mass of the water is [tex]\rho V = \rho _1 V_1 = \rho _2 V_2[/tex]
Thus; we can say [tex]\rho _1 V_1 = \rho _2 V_2[/tex];
⇒ [tex]999.7 \ kg/m^3*1000 \ mL = 977.8 \ kg/m^3 *V_2[/tex]
[tex]V_2 = \dfrac{999.7 \ kg/m^3*1000 \ mL}{977.8 \ kg/m^3 }[/tex]
[tex]V_2 = 1022.40 \ mL[/tex]
[tex]v_2 = 1022400 \ mm^3[/tex]
Thus, the volume of the water after heating to a required temperature of [tex]70^0C[/tex] is 1022400 mm³
However; taking an integral look at this process; the volume of the water before heating can be deduced by the relation:
[tex]V_1 = A_1 *h_1[/tex]
The area of the water before heating is:
[tex]A_1 = \dfrac{V_1}{h_1}[/tex]
[tex]A_1 = \dfrac{1000000}{1000}[/tex]
[tex]A_1 = 1000 \ mm^2[/tex]
The area of the heated water is :
[tex]A_2 = A_1 (1 + \Delta t \alpha )^2[/tex]
[tex]A_2 = A_1 (1 + (T_2-T_1) \alpha )^2[/tex]
[tex]A_2 = 1000 (1 + (70-10) 3.8*10^{-6} )^2[/tex]
[tex]A_2 = 1000.5 \ mm^2[/tex]
Finally, the depth of the heated hot water is:
[tex]h_2 = \dfrac{V_2}{A_2}[/tex]
[tex]h_2 = \dfrac{1022400}{1000.5}[/tex]
[tex]\mathbf{h_2 =1021.9 \ mm}[/tex]
Hence the depth of the heated hot water is [tex]\mathbf{h_2 =1021.9 \ mm}[/tex]
Use a delta-star conversion to simplify the delta BCD (40 , 16 , and 8 ) in the
bridge network in Fig. f and find the equivalent resistance that replaces the network
between terminals A and B, and hence find the current I if the source voltage is 52 V.
Answers
Answer:
Current, I = 4A
Explanation:
Since the connection is in delta, let's convert to star.
Simplify BCD:
[tex] R1 = \frac{40 * 8}{40 + 16 + 8} = \frac{320}{64} = 5 ohms [/tex]
[tex] R2 = \frac{16 * 8}{40 + 16 + 8} = \frac{128}{64} = 2 ohms [/tex]
[tex] R3 = \frac{40 * 16}{40 + 16 + 8} = \frac{640}{64} = 10 ohms [/tex]
From figure B, it can be seen that 6 ohms and 6 ohms are connected in parallel.
Simplify:
[tex] \frac{6 * 6}{6 + 6} = \frac{36}{12} = 3 \ohms [/tex]
Req = 10 ohms + 3 ohms
Req = 13 ohms
To find the current, use ohms law.
V = IR
Where, V = 52volts and I = 13 ohms
Solve for I,
[tex] I = \frac{V}{R} = \frac{52}{13} = 4A[/tex]
Current, I = 4 A
Design a decimal arithmetic unit with two selection variables, V1, and Vo, and two BCD digits, A and B. The unit should have four arithmetic operations which depend on the values of the selection variables as shown below. V1=0011, V0=0101 and output functions are as follows;
1- A+9's complement of B
2- A+B
3- A+10's complement of B
4- A+1 (add 1 to A)
(You can see question number 3 in the attached file)
Answers
A non-inductive load takes a current of 15 A at 125 V. An inductor is then connected in series in order that the same current shall be supplied from 240 V, 50 Hz mains. Ignore the resistance of the inductor and calculate: i. the inductance of the inductor; ii. the impedance of the circuit; iii. the phase difference between the current and the applied voltage.
Answers
Answer:
(i) The inductance of the inductor is = 43.43 mH (ii) the impedance of the circuit is = 16∠58.61° Ω (iii) the phase difference for current and the voltage applied is Q = 58.61°
Explanation:
Solution
Given that:
I= 5 A
V = 125V
Resistance R= Not known yet
Thus
To find the resistance we have the following formula which is shown below:
R = V/I
=125/15
R =8.333Ω
Now,
Voltage = 240
Frequency = 50Hz
Current (I) remain at = 15A
Z= not known (impedance)
so,
To find the impedance we have the formula which is shown below:
Z = V/I =240/15
Z= 16Ω⇒ Z = R + jXL
Z = 8.333 + jXL = 16
Thus
√8.333² + XL² = 16²
8.333² + XL² = 16²
XL² = 186.561
XL = 13.658Ω
Now
We find the inductance of the Inductor and the impedance of the circuit.
(i) In solving for the inductance of the inductor, a formula is applied here, which is shown below:
L = XL/w
=13.658/ 2π * 50
=13.658/314.15 = 0.043 = 43.43 mH
Note: w= 2πf
(ii) For the impedance of the circuit we have the following:
z = 8.333 + j 13.658
z = 16∠58.61° Ω
(iii) The next step is to find the phase difference between the applied voltage and current.
Q = this is the voltage across the inductor in a series of resonant circuit.
Q can also be called the applied voltage
Thus,
Q is described as an Impedance angle
Therefore, Q = 58.81°
An Ideal gas is being heated in a circular duct as while flowing over an electric heater of 130 kW. The diameter of duct is 500 mm. The gas enters the heating section of the duct at 100 kPa and 27 deg C with a volume flow rate of 15 m3/s. If heat is lost from the gas in the duct to the surroundings at a rate of 80 kW, Calculate the exit temperature of the gas in deg C. (Assume constant pressure, ideal gas, negligible change in kinetic and potential energies and constant specific heat; Cp =1000 J/kg K; R = 500 J/kg K)
Answers
Answer:
Exit temperature = 32 °C
Explanation:
We are given;
Initial Pressure;P1 = 100 KPa
Cp =1000 J/kg.K = 1 KJ/kg.k
R = 500 J/kg.K = 0.5 Kj/Kg.k
Initial temperature;T1 = 27°C = 273 + 27K = 300 K
volume flow rate;V' = 15 m³/s
W = 130 Kw
Q = 80 Kw
Using ideal gas equation,
PV' = m'RT
Where m' is mass flow rate.
Thus;making m' the subject, we have;
m' = PV'/RT
So at inlet,
m' = P1•V1'/(R•T1)
m' = (100 × 15)/(0.5 × 300)
m' = 10 kg/s
From steady flow energy equation, we know that;
m'•h1 + Q = m'h2 + W
Dividing through by m', we have;
h1 + Q/m' = h2 + W/m'
h = Cp•T
Thus,
Cp•T1 + Q/m' = Cp•T2 + W/m'
Plugging in the relevant values, we have;
(1*300) - (80/10) = (1*T2) - (130/10)
Q and M negative because heat is being lost.
300 - 8 + 13 = T2
T2 = 305 K = 305 - 273 °C = 32 °C
13000 + 300 - 8000 = T2
The basic behind equal driving is to
Answers
Follow traffic signs , Keep distance between cars , Be patient in traffic.
A walrus loses heat by conduction through its blubber at the rate of 220 W when immersed in −1.00°C water. Its internal core temperature is 37.0°C, and it has a surface area of 2.23 m2. What is the average thickness of its blubber? The conductivity of fatty tissue without blood is 0.20 (J/s · m · °C).
Answers
Answer:
The average thickness of the blubber is 0.077 m
Explanation:
Here, we want to calculate the average thickness of the Walrus blubber.
We employ a mathematical formula to calculate this;
The rate of heat transfer(H) through the Walrus blubber = dQ/dT = KA(T2-T1)/L
Where dQ is the change in amount of heat transferred
dT is the temperature gradient(change in temperature) i.e T2-T1
dQ/dT = 220 W
K is the conductivity of fatty tissue without blood = 0.20 (J/s · m · °C)
A is the surface area which is 2.23 m^2
T2 = 37.0 °C
T1 = -1.0 °C
L is ?
We can rewrite the equation in terms of L as follows;
L × dQ/dT = KA(T2-T1)
L = KA(T2-T1) ÷ dQ/dT
Imputing the values listed above;
L = (0.2 * 2.23)(37-(-1))/220
L = (0.2 * 2.23 * 38)/220 = 16.948/220 = 0.077 m
The yield strength for an alloy that has an average grain diameter, d1, is listed above as Yield Stress 1 . At a grain diameter of d2, the yield strength increases Yield Stress 2. At what grain diameter, in mm, will the yield strength be 217 MPa
Answers
Complete Question:
Grain diameter 1 (mm) = 4.4E-02
Yield stress 1 (MPa) = 131
Grain diameter 2 (mm) = 7.7E-03
Yield Stress 2 (MPa) = 268
The yield strength for an alloy that has an average grain diameter, d1, is listed above as Yield Stress 1 . At a grain diameter of d2, the yield strength increases Yield Stress 2. At what grain diameter, in mm, will the yield strength be 217 MPa
Answer:
d = 1.3 * 10⁻² m
Explanation:
According to the Hall Petch equation:
[tex]\sigma_y = \sigma_0 + k/\sqrt{d} \\[/tex]
At [tex]d_{1} = 4.4 * 10^{-2} mm[/tex], [tex]\sigma_{y1} = 131 MPa = 131 N/ mm^2[/tex]
[tex]131 = \sigma_0 + k/\sqrt{4.4 * 10^{-2}} \\k = 27.45 - 0.2096 \sigma_0[/tex]
At [tex]d_{2} = 7.7 * 10^{-3} mm[/tex], [tex]\sigma_{y2} = 131 MPa = 268 N/ mm^2[/tex]
[tex]268 = \sigma_0 + (27.45 - 0.2096 \sigma_0)/\sqrt{7.7 * 10^{-3}} \\23.5036 = 27.47 - 0.1219 \sigma_0\\ \sigma_0 = 32.45 N/mm^2[/tex]
k = 27.45 - 0.2096(32.45)
k = 20.64
At [tex]\sigma_y = 217 MPa[/tex], reapplying Hall Petch law:
[tex]\sigma_y = \sigma_0 + k/\sqrt{d} \\[/tex]
[tex]217 =32.45 + 20.64/\sqrt{d} \\217 - 32.45 = 20.64/\sqrt{d}\\184.55 = 20.64/ \sqrt{d} \\\sqrt{d} = 20.64/184.55\\\sqrt{d} = 0.11184\\d = 0.013 mm[/tex]
d = 1.3 * 10⁻² m
A solid square rod is cantilevered at one end. The rod is 0.6 m long and supports a completely reversing transverse load at the other end of 62 kN. The material is AISI 1080 hot-rolled steel. If the rod must support this load for 104 cycles with a design factor of 1.5, what dimension should the square cross section have
Answers
Answer:
The dimension of the square cross section is = 30mm * 30mm
Explanation:
Before proceeding with the calculations convert MPa to Kpsi
Sut ( ultimate strength ) = 770 MPa * 0.145 Kpsi/MPa = 111.65 Kpsi
the fatigue strength factor of Sut at 10^3 cycles for Se = Se' = 0.5 Sut
at 10^6 cycles" for 111.65 Kpsi = f ( fatigue strength factor) = 0.83
To calculate the endurance limit use Se' = 0.5 Sut since Sut < 1400 MPa
Se'( endurance limit ) = 0.5 * 770 = 385 Mpa
The surface condition modification factor
Ka = 57.7 ( Sut )^-0.718
Ka = 57.7 ( 770 ) ^-0.718
Ka = 0.488
Assuming the size modification factor (Kb) = 0.85 and also assuming all modifiers are equal to one
The endurance limit at the critical location of a machine part can be expressed as :
Se = Ka*Kb*Se'
Se = 0.488 * 0.85 * 385 = 160 MPa
Next:
Calculating the constants to find the number of cycles
α = [tex]\frac{(fSut)^2}{Se}[/tex]
α =[tex]\frac{(0.83*770)^2}{160}[/tex] = 2553 MPa
b = [tex]-\frac{1}{3} log(\frac{fSut}{Se} )[/tex]
b = [tex]-\frac{1}{3} log (\frac{0.83*770}{160} )[/tex] = -0.2005
Next :
calculating the fatigue strength using the relation
Sf = αN^b
N = number of cycles
Sf = 2553 ( 10^4) ^ -0.2005
Sf = 403 MPa
Calculate the maximum moment of the beam
M = 2000 * 0.6 = 1200 N-m
calculating the maximum stress in the beam
∝ = ∝max = [tex]\frac{Mc}{I}[/tex]
Where c = b/2 and I = b(b^3) / 12
hence ∝max = [tex]\frac{6M}{b^3}[/tex] = 6(1200) / b^3 = 7200/ b^3 Pa
note: b is in (meters)
The expression for the factor of safety is written as
n = [tex]\frac{Sf}{\alpha max }[/tex]
Sf = 403, n = 1.5 and ∝max = 7200 / b^3
= 1.5 = [tex]\frac{403(10^6 Pa/Mpa)}{7200 / B^3}[/tex] making b subject of the formula in other to get the value of b
b = 0.0299 m * 10^3 mm/m
b = 29.9 mm therefore b ≈ 30 mm
since the size factor assumed is near the calculated size factor using this relation : de = 0.808 ( hb)^1/2
the dimension = 30 mm by 30 mm
The temperature of a flowing gas is to be measured with a thermocouple junction and wire stretched between two legs of a sting, a wind tunnel test fixture. The junction is formed by butt-welding two wires of different material. For wires of diameter D = 125 m and a convection coefficient of h = 700 W/m^2 K, determine the minimum separation distance between the two legs of the sting, L=L1+L2, to ensure that the sting temperature does not influence the junction temperature and, in turn, invalidate the gas temperature measurement. Consider two different types of thermocouple junctions consisting of (i) copper and constantan wires and (ii) chromel and aluminel wires. Evaluate the thermal conductivity of copper and constantan at T300 K. Use kCh =19 W/mK and kA = l29 W/mK for the thermal conductivities of the chromel and alumel wires, respectively.
Answers
Answer:
minimum separation distance between the two legs of the sting L = L 1 + L 2 therefore L = 9.48 + 4.68 = 14.16 mL = 1.14 mExplanation:
D ( diameter ) = 125 m
convection coefficient of h = 700 W/m^2
Calculate THE CROSS SECTIONAL AREA
Ac = [tex]\frac{\pi }{4} * D^2[/tex] = [tex]\frac{\pi }{4} * ( 125 )^2[/tex] = 0.79 * 15625 = 12343.75 m^2
perimeter
p = [tex]\pi * D[/tex] = 3.14 * 125 = 392.5 m
at 300k temperature the thermal conductivity of copper and constantan from the thermodynamic property table are :
Kcu = 401 w/m.k
Kconstantan = 23 W/m.k
To calculate the length of copper wire of the thermocouple junction
L 1 = 4.6 ([tex]\frac{Kcv Ac}{h P}[/tex]) ^ 1/2 = 4.6 [tex](\frac{401 *12343.75 }{700 *392.5})^\frac{1}{2}[/tex]
L 1 = 4.6 ( 4949843.75 / 274750 )^1/2
L 1 = 9.48 m
calculate length of constantan wire
L 2 = 4.6 [tex](\frac{kcons*Ac}{hp} )^\frac{1}{2}[/tex]
= 4.6 ( (23 * 12343.75) / ( 700 * 392.5) ) ^1/2
L 2 = 4.6 ( 283906.25 / 274750 ) ^ 1/2
L 2 = 4.68 m
I) therefore the minimum separation distance between the two legs of the sting L = L 1 + L 2
L = 9.48 + 4.68 = 14.16 m
ii) Evaluating the thermal conductivity of copper and constantan
Kc ( thermal conductivity of chromel) = 19 w/m.k
Ka ( thermal conductivity of alumel ) = 29 W/m.k
distance between the legs L = L 1 + L 2
THEREFORE
L = 4.6 ( (Kcn * Ac ) / ( hp ) )^1/2 + 4.6 ( (Kac * Ac)/(hp) )^1/2
L = 4.6 [tex](\frac{Ac}{hp} )^\frac{1}{2} [ (Kcn)^\frac{1}{2} + (Kal)^\frac{1}{2} ][/tex]
L = 4.6 ( 12343.75 /( 700 * 392.5) )^1/2 * [ 19^1/2 + 29^1/2 ]
L = 4.6 ( 12343.75 / 274750 ) ^1/2 * 5.39
L = 1.14 m
The ABC Corporation manufactures and sells two products: T1 and T2. 20XX budget for the company is given below:
Projected Sales Units Price T1 60,000 $165 T2 40,000 $250
Inventories in Units January 1, 20XX December 31, 20XX T1 20,000 25,000 T2 8,000 9,000
The following direct materials are used in the two products: Amount used per unit Direct Material Unit T1 T2 A pound 4 5 B pound 2 3 C each 0 1
Anticipated Inventories Direct Material Purchase Price January 1, 2012 December 31, 2012 A $12 32,000 lb. 36,000 lb. B $5 29,000 lb. 32,000 lb. C $3 6,000 units 7,000 units
Projected direct manufacturing labor requirements and rates for 20XX are as follows: Hours per Unit Rate per Hour T1 2 $12 T2 3 $16
4
Manufacturing overhead is allocated at the rate of $20 per direct manufacturing labor-hour. Marketing and distribution costs are projected to be $100,000 and $ 300,000, respectively.
a. What is the total expected revenue (in dollars) for 20XX? b. What is the expected production level (in units) both for T1 and T2? c. What is the total direct material purchases (in dollars) for each type of direct material? d. What is the total direct manufacturing labor cost (in dollars)? e. What is the total overhead cost (in dollars)? f. What is the total cost of goods sold (in dollars)? g. What is the total expected operating income (in dollars) for 20XX?
Answers
Answer:
The ABC Corporation
a) Total Expected Revenue (in dollars) for 20XX:
Revenue from T1 = 60,000 x $165 = $26,400,000
Revenue from T2 = 40,000 x $250 = $10,000,000
Total Revenue from T1 and T2 = $36,400,000
b) Production Level (in units) for T1 and T2
T1 T2
Total Units sold 160,000 40,000
Add Closing Inventory 25,000 9,000
Units Available for sale 185,000 49,000
less opening inventory 20,000 8,000
Production Level 165,000 units 41,000 units
c) Total Direct Material Purchases (in dollars):
Cost of direct materials used T1 T2
A: (165,000 x 4 x $12) $7,920,000 $2,460,000 (41,000 x 5 x $12)
B: (165,000 x 2 x $5) 1,650,000 615,000 (41,000 x 3 x $5)
C: 0 123,000 (41,000 x 1 x$3)
Total cost $9,570,000 $3,198,000 Total = $12,768,000
Cost of direct per unit = $58 ($9,570,000/165,000) for T1 and $78 ($3,198,000/41,000) for T2
Cost of direct materials used for production $12,768,000
Cost of closing direct materials:
A (36,000 x $12) $432,000
B (32,000 x $5) 160,000
C (7,000 x $3) 21,000 $613,000
Cost of direct materials available for prodn $13,381,000
Less cost of beginning direct materials:
A (32,000 x $12) $384,000
B (29,000 x $5) 145,000
C (6,000 x $3) 18,000 $547,000
Cost of direct materials purchases $12,834,000
d) The Total Direct Manufacturing Labor Cost (in dollars):
T1 T2
Direct labor per unit 2 hours 3 hours
Direct labor rate per hour $12 $16
Direct labor cost per unit $24 $48
Production level 165,000 units 41,000 units
Labor Cost ($) $3,960,000 $1,968,000
Total labor cost $5,928,000 ($3,960,000 + $1,968,000)
e) Total Overhead cost (in dollars):
Overhead rate = $20 per labor hour
Overhead cost per unit: T1 = $40 ($20 x 2) and T2 = $60 ($20 x 3)
T1 overhead = $20 x 2 x 165,000) = $6,600,000
T2 overhead = $20 x 3 x 41,000) = $2,460,000
Total Overhead cost = $9,060,000
Cost of goods produced:
Cost of opening inventory of materials = $547,000
Purchases of directials materials 12,834,000
less closing inventory of materials = $613,000
Cost of materials used for production 12,768,000
add Labor cost 5,928,000
add Overhead cost 9,060,000
Total production cost $27,756,000
f) Total cost of goods sold (in dollars):
Cost of opening inventory = $3,928,000
Total Production cost = $27,756,000
Cost of goods available for sale $31,684,000
Less cost of closing inventory $4,724,000
Total cost of goods sold $26,960,000
g) Total expected operating income (in dollars)
Sales Revenue: T1 and T2 $36,400,000
Cost of goods sold 26,960,000
Gross profit $9,440,000
less marketing & distribution 400,000
Total Expected Operating Income = $9,040,000
Explanation:
a) Cost of beginning inventory of finished goods:
T1, (Direct materials + Labor + Overhead) X inventory units =
T1 = 20,000 x ($58 + 24 + 40) = $2,440,000
T2 = 8,000 ($78 + 48 + 60) = $1,488,000
Total cost of beginning inventory = $3,928,000
b) Cost of closing Inventory of finished goods:
T1 = 25,000 x ($58 + 24 + 40) = $3,050,000
T2 = 9,000 ($78 + 48 + 60) = $1,674,000
Total cost of closing inventory = $4,724,000
A(n) 78-hp compressor in a facility that operates at full load for 2500 h a year is powered by an electric motor that has an efficiency of 93 percent. If the unit cost of electricity is $0.11/kWh, what is the annual electricity cost of this compressor
Answers
Answer: $17,206.13
Explanation:
Hi, to answer this question we have to apply the next formula:
Annual electricity cost = (P x 0.746 x Ckwh x h) /η
P = compressor power = 78 hp
0.746 kw/hp= constant (conversion to kw)
Ckwh = Cost per kilowatt hour = $0.11/kWh
h = operating hours per year = 2500 h
η = efficiency = 93% = 0.93 (decimal form)
Replacing with the values given :
C = ( 78 hp x 0.746 kw/hp x 0.11 $/kwh x 2500 h ) / 0.93 = $17,206.13
A phone charger requires 0.5 A at 5V. It is connected to a transformer with 100 % of efficiency whose primary contains 2200 turns and is connected to 220-V household outlet.
(a) How many turns should there be in the secondary?
(b) What is the current in the primary?
(c) What would be the output current and output voltage values if number of secondary turns (N2) doubled of its initial value?
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
a ) for transformer which steps down voltage , if V₁ and V₂ be voltage of primary and secondary coil and n₁ and n₂ be the no of turns of wire in them
V₁ /V₂ = n₁ / n₂
Here V₁ = 220 V , V₂ = 5V , n₁ = 2200 n₂ = ?
220 /5 = 2200 / n₂
n₂ = 2200 x 5 / 220
= 50
b )
for 100 % efficiency
input power = output power
V₁ I₁ = V₂I₂
I₁ and I₂ are current in primary and secondary coil
220 x I₁ = 5 x .5
I₁ = .01136 A .
c )
If n₂ = 100
V₁ /V₂ = n₁ / n₂
220 / V₂ = 2200 / 100
V₂ = 10 V
V₁ I₁ = V₂I₂
220 x .01136 = 10 I₂
I₂ = .25 A.
The internal loadings at a critical section along the steel drive shaft of a ship are calculated to be a torque of 2300 lb⋅ft, a bending moment of 1500 lb⋅ft, and an axial thrust of 2500 lb. If the yield points for tension and shear are σY= 100 ksi and τY = 50 ksi, respectively, determine the required diameter of the shaft using the maximum-shear-stress theory
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
Given that:
Torque T = 2300 lb - ft
Bending moment M = 1500 lb - ft
axial thrust P = 2500 lb
yield points for tension σY= 100 ksi
yield points for shear τY = 50 ksi
Using maximum-shear-stress theory
[tex]\sigma_A = \dfrac{P}{A}+\dfrac{Mc}{I}[/tex]
where;
[tex]A = \pi c^2[/tex]
[tex]I = \dfrac{\pi}{4}c^4[/tex]
[tex]\sigma_A = \dfrac{P}{\pi c^2}+\dfrac{Mc}{ \dfrac{\pi}{4}c^4}[/tex]
[tex]\sigma_A = \dfrac{2500}{\pi c^2}+\dfrac{1500*12c}{ \dfrac{\pi}{4}c^4}[/tex]
[tex]\sigma_A = \dfrac{2500}{\pi c^2}+\dfrac{72000c}{\pi c^3}}[/tex]
[tex]\tau_A = \dfrac{T_c}{\tau}[/tex]
where;
[tex]\tau = \dfrac{\pi c^4}{2}[/tex]
[tex]\tau_A = \dfrac{T_c}{\dfrac{\pi c^4}{2}}[/tex]
[tex]\tau_A = \dfrac{2300*12 c}{\dfrac{\pi c^4}{2}}[/tex]
[tex]\tau_A = \dfrac{55200 }{\pi c^3}}[/tex]
[tex]\sigma_{1,2} = \dfrac{\sigma_x+\sigma_y}{2} \pm \sqrt{\dfrac{(\sigma_x - \sigma_y)^2}{2}+ \tau_y^2}[/tex]
[tex]\sigma_{1,2} = \dfrac{2500+72000}{2 \pi c ^3} \pm \sqrt{\dfrac{(2500 +72000)^2}{2 \pi c^3}+ \dfrac{55200}{\pi c^3}} \ \ \ \ \ ------(1)[/tex]
Let say :
[tex]|\sigma_1 - \sigma_2| = \sigma_y[/tex]
Then :
[tex]2\sqrt{( \dfrac{2500c + 72000}{2 \pi c^3})^2+ ( \dfrac{55200}{\pi c^3})^2 } = 100(10^3)[/tex]
[tex](2500 c + 72000)^2 +(110400)^2 = 10000*10^6 \pi^2 c^6[/tex]
[tex]6.25c^2 + 360c+ 17372.16-10,000\ \pi^2 c^6 =0[/tex]
According to trial and error;
c = 0.75057 in
Replacing c into equation (1)
[tex]\sigma_{1,2} = \dfrac{2500+72000}{2 \pi (0.75057) ^3} \pm \sqrt{\dfrac{(2500 +72000)^2}{2 \pi (0.75057)^3}+ \dfrac{55200}{\pi (0.75057)^3}}[/tex]
[tex]\sigma_{1,2} = \dfrac{2500+72000}{2 \pi (0.75057) ^3} + \sqrt{\dfrac{(2500 +72000)^2}{2 \pi (0.75057)^3}+ \dfrac{55200}{\pi (0.75057)^3}} \ \ \ OR \\ \\ \\ \sigma_{1,2} = \dfrac{2500+72000}{2 \pi (0.75057) ^3} - \sqrt{\dfrac{(2500 +72000)^2}{2 \pi (0.75057)^3}+ \dfrac{55200}{\pi (0.75057)^3}}[/tex]
[tex]\sigma _1 = 22193 \ Psi[/tex]
[tex]\sigma_2 = -77807 \ Psi[/tex]
The required diameter d = 2c
d = 1.50 in or 0.125 ft
A particle oscillates between the points x=40 mm and x=160 mm with
an acceleration a =
k(100 - x), where a and x are expressed in mm/s2 and
respectively, and k is a constant. The velocity of the particle is 18 mm/s when x = 100 mm
and is zero at both x = 40 mm and x = 160 mm. Determine (a) the value of k,
(b) the velocity when x = 120 mm.
Answers
Answer:
(a) k = 0.09 s⁻¹
(b) The velocity= ± 16.97 mm/s
Explanation:
(a) Given that the acceleration = a = k(100 - x)
Therefore;
[tex]a = \dfrac{dv}{dt} = \dfrac{dv}{dx} \times \dfrac{dx}{dt} = \dfrac{dv}{dx} \times v = k(100 - x)[/tex]
When x = 40 mm, v = 0 mm/s hence;
[tex]\int\limits^v_0 {v } \, dv = \int\limits^x_{40} {k(100 - x)} \, dx[/tex]
[tex]\dfrac{1}{2} v^2 = k \cdot \left [100\cdot x-\frac{1}{2}\cdot x^{2} \right ]_{x}^{40}[/tex]
[tex]\dfrac{1}{2} v^2 = -\dfrac{ k\cdot \left (x^{2}-200\cdot x+6400 \right ) }{2}[/tex]
At x = 100 mm, v = 18 mm/s hence we have;
[tex]\dfrac{1}{2} 18^2 = -\dfrac{ k\cdot \left (100^{2}-200\times 100+6400 \right ) }{2} = 1800\cdot k[/tex]
[tex]\dfrac{1}{2} 18^2 =162 = 1800\cdot k[/tex]
k = 162/1800 = 9/100 = 0.09 s⁻¹
(b) When x = 120 mm, we have
[tex]\dfrac{1}{2} v^2 = -\dfrac{ 0.09\times \left (120^{2}-200\times 120+6400 \right ) }{2} = 144[/tex]
Therefore;
v² = 2 × 144 = 288
The velocity, v = √288 = ±12·√2 = ± 16.97 mm/s.
A motor vehicle has a mass of 1.8 tonnes and its wheelbase is 3 m. The centre of gravity of the vehicle is situated in the central plane 0.9 m above the ground and 1.7 m behind the front axle. When moving on the level at 90 km/h the brakes applied and it comes to a rest in a distance of 50 m.
Calculate the normal reactions at the front and rear wheels during the braking period and the least coefficient of friction required between the tyres and the road. (Assume g = 10 m/s2)
Answers
Answer:
1) The normal reactions at the front wheel is 9909.375 N
The normal reactions at the rear wheel is 8090.625 N
2) The least coefficient of friction required between the tyres and the road is 0.625
Explanation:
1) The parameters given are as follows;
Speed, u = 90 km/h = 25 m/s
Distance, s it takes to come to rest = 50 m
Mass, m = 1.8 tonnes = 1,800 kg
From the equation of motion, we have;
v² - u² = 2·a·s
Where:
v = Final velocity = 0 m/s
a = acceleration
∴ 0² - 25² = 2 × a × 50
a = -6.25 m/s²
Force, F = mass, m × a = 1,800 × (-6.25) = -11,250 N
The coefficient of friction, μ, is given as follows;
[tex]\mu =\dfrac{u^2}{2 \times g \times s} = \dfrac{25^2}{2 \times 10 \times 50} = 0.625[/tex]
Weight transfer is given as follows;
[tex]W_{t}=\dfrac{0.625 \times 0.9}{3}\times \dfrac{6.25}{10}\times 18000 = 2109.375 \, N[/tex]
Therefore, we have for the car at rest;
Taking moment about the Center of Gravity CG;
[tex]F_R[/tex] × 1.3 = 1.7 × [tex]F_F[/tex]
[tex]F_R[/tex] + [tex]F_F[/tex] = 18000
[tex]F_R + \dfrac{1.3 }{1.7} \times F_R = 18000[/tex]
[tex]F_R[/tex] = 18000*17/30 = 10200 N
[tex]F_F[/tex] = 18000 N - 10200 N = 7800 N
Hence with the weight transfer, we have;
The normal reactions at the rear wheel [tex]F_R[/tex] = 10200 N - 2109.375 N = 8090.625 N
The normal reactions at the front wheel [tex]F_F[/tex] = 7800 N + 2109.375 N = 9909.375 N
2) The least coefficient of friction, μ, is given as follows;
[tex]\mu = \dfrac{F}{R} = \dfrac{11250}{18000} = 0.625[/tex]
The least coefficient of friction, μ = 0.625.
Consider a series RC circuit at the left where C = 6 µ F, R = 2 MΩ, and ε = 20 V. You close the switch at t = 0. Find (a) the time constant for the circuit, (b) the half-life of the circuit, (c) the current at t = 0, (d) the voltage across the capacitor at t = 0, and (e) the voltage across the resistor after a very long time.
Answers
Answer:
(a) 12 seconds (b) t = 8.31 seconds (c) 10µ A (d) V = 20 V (e) V =0
Explanation:
Solution
Given that:
C = 6 µ which is = 6 * 10^ ⁻6
R = 2 MΩ, which is = 2 * 10^ 6
ε = 20 V
(a) When it is at the time constant we have the following:
λ = CR
= 6 * 10^ ⁻6 * 2 * 10^ 6
λ =12 seconds
(b) We solve for the half life of the circuit which is given below:
d₀ = d₀ [ 1- e ^ ⁺t/CR
d = decay mode]
d₀/2 = d₀ 1- e ^ ⁺t/12
2^⁻1 = e ^ ⁺t/12
Thus
t/12 ln 2
t = 12 * ln 2
t = 12 * 0.693
t = 8.31 seconds
(c) We find the current at t = 0
So,
I = d₀/dt
I = d₀/dt e ^ ⁺t/CR
= CE/CR e ^ ⁺t/CR
E/R e ^ ⁺t/CR
Thus,
at t = 0
I E/R = 20/ 2 * 10^ 6
= 10µ A
(d) We find the voltage across the capacitor at t = 0 which is shown below:
V = IR
= 10 * 10^ ⁻6 * 2 * 10^ 6
V = 20 V
(e) We solve for he voltage across the resistor.
At t = 0
I = 0
V =0
A spherical tank for storing gas under pressure is 25 m in diameter and is made of steel 15 mm thick. The yield point of the material is 240 MPa. A factor of safety of 2.5 is desired. The maximum permissible internal pressure is most nearly: 90 kPa 230 kPa 430 kPa D. 570 kPa csauteol psotolem here Pcr 8. A structural steel tube with a 203 mm x 203 mm square cross section has an average wall thickness of 6.35 mm. The tube resists a torque of 8 N m. The average shear flow is most nearly
A. 100 N/m
B. 200 N/m
C. 400 N/m
D. 800 N/m
Answers
Answer:
1) 2304 kPa
2) B. 200 N/m
Explanation:
The internal pressure of the of the tank can be found from the following relations;
Resisting wall force F = p×(1/4·π·D²)
σ×A = p×(1/4·π·D²)
Where:
σ = Allowable stress of the tank
A = Area of the wall of the tank = π·D·t
t = Thickness of the tank = 15 mm. = 0.015 m
D = Diameter of the tank = 25 m
p = Maximum permissible internal pressure pressure
∴ σ×π·D·t = p×(1/4·π·D²)
p = 4×σ×t/D = 4 × 240 ×0.015/2.5 = 5.76 MPa
With a desired safety factor of 2.5, the permissible internal pressure = 5.76/2.5 = 2.304 MPa
2) The formula for average shear flow is given as follows;
[tex]q = \dfrac{T}{2 \times A_m}[/tex]
Where:
q = Average shear flow
T = Torque = 8 N·m
[tex]A_m[/tex] = Average area enclosed within tube
t = Thickness of tube = 6.35 mm = 0.00635 m
Side length of the square cross sectioned tube, s = 203 mm = 0.203 m
Average area enclosed within tube, [tex]A_m[/tex] = (s - t)² = (0.203 - 0.00635)² = 0.039 m²
[tex]\therefore q = \dfrac{8}{2 \times 0.039} = 206.9 \, N/m[/tex]
Hence the average shear flow is most nearly 200 N/m.
Following are the solution to the given question:
Calculating the allowable stress:
[tex]\to \sigma_{allow} = \frac{\sigma_y}{FS} \\\\[/tex]
[tex]= \frac{240}{2.5} \\\\= 96\\\\[/tex]
Calculating the Thickness:
[tex]\to t =15\ mm = \frac{15\ }{1000}= 0.015\ m\\\\[/tex]
The stress in a spherical tank is defined as
[tex]\to \sigma = \frac{pD}{4t}\\\\\to 96 = \frac{p(25)}{4(0.015)}\\\\\to p = 0.2304\;\;MPa\\\\\to p = 230.4\;\;kPa\\\\\to p \approx 230\;\;kPa\\\\[/tex]
[tex]\bold{\to A= 203^2= 41209\ mm^2} \\\\[/tex]
Calculating the shear flow:
[tex]\to q=\frac{T}{2A}[/tex]
[tex]=\frac{8}{2 \times 41209 \times 10^{-6}}\\\\=\frac{8}{0.082418}\\\\=97.066\\\\[/tex]
[tex]\to q=97 \approx 100 \ \frac{N}{m}\\[/tex]
Therefore, the final answer is "".
Learn more:
brainly.com/question/15744940
The lower half of a 7-m-high cylindrical container is filled with water (rho = 1000 kg/m3) and the upper half with oil that has a specific gravity of 0.85. Determine the pressure difference between the top and the bottom of the cylinder. (Round the final answer to one decimal place.)
Answers
Answer:
Pressure difference (ΔP) = 63,519.75 kpa
Explanation:
Given:
ρ = 1,000 kg/m³
Height of cylindrical container used (h) = 7m / 2 = 3.5m
Specific gravity (sg) = 0.85
Find:
Pressure difference (ΔP).
Computation:
⇒ Pressure difference (ΔP) = h g [ ρ(sg) + ρ] ∵ [ g = 9.81]
⇒ Pressure difference (ΔP) = (3.5)(9.81) [ 1,000(0.85) + 1,000]
⇒ Pressure difference (ΔP) = 34.335 [8,50 + 1,000]
⇒ Pressure difference (ΔP) = 34.335 [1,850]
⇒ Pressure difference (ΔP) = 63,519.75 kpa
An isentropic steam turbine processes 5.5 kg/s of steam at 3 MPa, which is exhausted at 50 kPa and 100°C. Five percent of this flow is diverted for feedwater heating at 500 kPa. Determine the power produced by this turbine. Use steam tables.
Answers
Answer:
The answer is 1823.9
Explanation:
Solution
Given that:
m = 5.5 kg/s
= m₁ = m₂ = m₃
The work carried out by the energy balance is given as follows:
m₁h₁ = m₂h₂ +m₃h₃ + w
Now,
By applying the steam table we have that<
p₃ = 50 kPa
T₃ = 100°C
Which is
h₃ = 2682.4 kJ/KJ
s₃ = 7.6953 kJ/kgK
Since it is an isentropic process:
Then,
p₂ = 500 kPa
s₂=s₃ = 7.6953 kJ/kgK
which is
h₂ =3207.21 kJ/KgK
p₁ = 3HP0
s₁ = s₂=s₃ = 7.6953 kJ/kgK
h₁ =3854.85 kJ/kg
Thus,
Since 5 % of this flow diverted to p₂ = 500 kPa
Then
w =m (h₁-0.05 h₂ -0.95 )h₃
5.5(3854.85 - 0.05 * 3207.21 - 0.95 * 2682.4)
5.5( 3854.83 * 3207.21 - 0.95 * 2682.4)
5.5 ( 123363249.32 -0.95 * 2682.4)
w=1823.9
Scheduling can best be defined as the process used to determine:
Answers
Answer:
Overall project duration
Explanation:
Scheduling can best be defined as the process used to determine a overall project duration.
A rectangular bar of length L has a slot in the central half of its length. The bar has width b, thickness t, and elastic modulus E. The slot has width b/3. The overall length of the bar is L = 570 mm, and the elastic modulus of the material is 77 GPa. If the average normal stress in the central portion of the bar is 200 MPa, calculate the overall elongation δ of the bar.
Answers
Answer:
The correct answer to the following question will be "1.23 mm".
Explanation:
The given values are:
Average normal stress,
[tex]\sigma=200 \ MPa[/tex]
Elastic module,
[tex]E = 77 \ GPa[/tex]
Length,
[tex]L = 570 \ mm[/tex]
To find the deformation, firstly we have to find the equation:
⇒ [tex]\delta=\Sigma\frac{N_{i}L_{i}}{E \ A_{i}}[/tex]
⇒ [tex]=\frac{P(\frac{L}{H})}{E(bt)} +\frac{P(\frac{L}{2})}{E (bt)(\frac{2}{3})}+\frac{P(\frac{L}{H})}{Ebt}[/tex]
On taking "[tex]\frac{PL}{Ebt}[/tex]" as common, we get
⇒ [tex]=\frac{\frac{PL}{Ebt}}{[\frac{1}{4}+\frac{3}{4}+\frac{1}{4}]}[/tex]
⇒ [tex]=\frac{5PL}{HEbt}[/tex]
Now,
The stress at the middle will be:
⇒ [tex]\sigma=\frac{P}{A}[/tex]
⇒ [tex]=\frac{P}{(\frac{2}{3})bt}[/tex]
⇒ [tex]=\frac{3P}{2bt}[/tex]
⇒ [tex]\frac{P}{bt} =\frac{2 \sigma}{3}[/tex]
Hence,
⇒ [tex]\delta=\frac{5 \sigma \ L}{6E}[/tex]
On putting the estimated values, we get
⇒ [tex]=\frac{5\times 200\times 570}{6\times 77\times 10^3}[/tex]
⇒ [tex]=\frac{570000}{462000}[/tex]
⇒ [tex]=1.23 \ mm[/tex]
Under the normal sign convention, the distributed load on a beam is equal to the:_______A. The rate of change of the bending moment with respect to the shear force. B. The second derivative of the bending moment with respect to the length of the beam. C. The rate of change of the bending moment with respect to the length of the beam. D. Negative of the rate of change of the shear force with respect to the length of the beam.
Answers
Answer:
Under the normal sign convention, the distributed load on a beam is equal to the: O The second derivative of the bending moment with respect to the length of the beam O Negative of the rate of change of the shear force with respect to the length of the beam.
Sorry if the answer is wrong
2) Consider schedules S3, S4, and S5 below. Determine whether each schedule is strict, cascadeless, recoverable, or non-recoverable. You need to explain your reason.
S3: r1(x), r2(z), r1(z), r3(x), r3(y), w1(x), c1, w3(y), c3, r2(y), w2(z),w2(y),c2
S4: r1(x), r2(z), r1(z), r3(x), r3(y),w1(x),w3(y), r2(y),w2(z),w2(y), c1,c2, c3
S5: r1(x), r2(z), r3(x), r1(z), r2(y), r3(y), w1(x), c1, w2(z), w3(y), w2(y), c3, c2
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
Consider schedules S3, S4, and S5 below. Determine whether each schedule is strict, cascadeless, recoverable, or non-recoverable. You need to explain your reason.
S3: r1(x), r2(z), r1(z), r3(x), r3(y), w1(x), c1, w3(y), c3, r2(y), w2(z),w2(y),c2
S4: r1(x), r2(z), r1(z), r3(x), r3(y),w1(x),w3(y), r2(y),w2(z),w2(y), c1,c2, c3
S5: r1(x), r2(z), r3(x), r1(z), r2(y), r3(y), w1(x), c1, w2(z), w3(y), w2(y), c3, c2
Strict schedule:
A schedule is strict if it satisfies the following conditions:
Tj reads a data item X after Ti has written to X and Ti is terminated means aborted or committed.
Tj writes a data item X after Ti has written to X and Ti is terminated means aborted or committed.
S3 is not strict because In a strict schedule T3 must read X after C1 but here T3 reads X (r3(X)) before Then T1 has written to X (w1(X)) and T3 commits after T1.
S4 is not strict because In a strict schedule T3 must read X after C1, but here T3 reads X (r3(X)) before T1 has written to X (w1(X)) and T3 commits after T1.
S5 is not strict because T3 reads X (r3(X)) before T1 has written to X (w1(X))
but T3 commits after T1. In a strict schedule T3 must read X after C1.
Cascadeless schedule:
Cascadeless schedule follows the below condition:
Tj reads X only? after Ti has written to X and terminated means aborted or committed.
S3 is not cascadeless schedule because T3 reads X (r3(X)) before T1 commits.
S4 is not cascadeless schedule because T3 reads X (r3(X)) before T1 commits.
S5 is not cascadeless schedule because T3 reads X (r3(X)) before T1 commits or T2 reads Y (r2(Y)) before T3 commits.
But while come to the definition of cascadeless schedules S3, S4, and S4 are not cascadeless, and T3 is not affected if T1 is rolled back in any of the schedules, that is,
T3 does not have to roll back if T1 is rolled back. The problem occurs because these
schedules are not serializable.
Recoverable schedule:
Schedule that follows the below condition:
-----Tj commits after Ti if Tj has?read any data item written by Ti.
Ci > Cj means that Ci happens before Cj. Ai denotes abort Ti. To test if a schedule is
recoverable one has to include abort operations. Thus in testing the recoverability abort
operations will have to used in place of commit one at a time. Also the strictest condition is
------where a transaction neither reads nor writes to a data item, which was written to by a transaction that has not committed yet.
If A1?>C3>C2, then schedule S3 is recoverable because rolling back of T1 does not affect T2 and
T3. If C1>A3>C2. schedule S3 is not recoverable because T2 read the value of Y (r2(Y)) after T3 wrote X (w3(Y)) and T2 committed but T3 rolled back. Thus, T2 used non- existent value of Y. If C1>C3>A3, then S3 is recoverable because roll back of T2 does not affect T1 and T3.
Strictest condition of schedule S3 is C3>C2.
If A1?>C2>C3, then schedule S4 is recoverable because roll back of T1 does not affect T2 and T3. If C1>A2>C3, then schedule S4 is recoverable because the roll back of T2 will restore the value of Y that was read and written to by T3 (w3(Y)). It will not affect T1. If C1>C2>A3, then schedule S4 is not recoverable because T3 will restore the value of Y which was not read by T2.
list everything wrong with 2020
Answers
Answer:
George Floyd (BLACK LIFES MATTER)
C O V I D - 19
Quarantine
no sports
wearing a mask
and a whole lot of other stuff
Explanation:
Purely resistive loads of 24 kW, 18 kW, and 12 kW are connected between the neutral
and the red, yellow and blue phases respectively of a 3-0, four-wire system. The line
voltage is 415 V. Calculate:
i. the current in each line conductor (i.e., IR ,Iy and IB); and
ii. the current in the neutral conductor.
Answers
Answer:
(i) IR = 100.167 A Iy = 75.125∠-120 IB = 50.083 ∠+120 (ii) IN =43.374∠ -30°
Explanation:
Solution
Given that:
Three loads 24 kW, 18 kW, and 12 kW are connected between the neutral.
Voltage = 415V
Now,
(1)The current in each line conductor
Thus,
The Voltage Vpn = vL√3
Gives us, 415/√3 = 239.6 V
Then,
IR = 24 K/ Vpn ∠0°
24K/239.6 ∠0°= 100.167 A
For Iy
Iy = 18k/239. 6
= 75.125A
Thus,
Iy = 75.125∠-120 this is as a result of the 3- 0 system
Now,
IB = 12K /239.6
= 50.083 A
Thus,
IB is =50.083 ∠+120
(ii) We find the current in the neutral conductor
which is,
IN =Iy +IB +IR
= 75.125∠-120 + 50.083∠+120 +100.167
This will give us the following summation below:
-37.563 - j65.06 - 25.0415 +j 43.373 + 100.167
Thus,
IN = 37.563- j 21.687
Therefore,
IN =43.374∠ -30°
Describe what you have been taught about the relationship between basic science research, and technological innovation before this class. Have you been told that it is similar to the linear model? Is your view of this relationship different after studying this unit's lectures and readings? Explain why in 3-4 sentences
Answers
Answer:
With the Breakthrough of Technology, the rate at which things are done are becoming much more easy. but without basic science, innovation towards technology cannot occur, so the both work hand in hand in the world of technology today.
Explanation:
Technological innovation and Basic science research plays a major role in the world of science and technology today, while we all want technology innovation the more, without basic science, innovation cannot come in place,
Just as we are going further in technology, breakthroughs and growth are been made which helps on the long run in science research which in turn has made things to be done much better and easily.
Under normal operating conditions, the electric motor exerts a torque of 2.8 kN-m.on shaft AB. Knowing that each shaft is solid, determine the maximum shearing stress in a) shaft AB b) shaft BC c) shaft CD (25 points) Given that the torque at B
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
The image attached to the question is shown in the first diagram below.
From the diagram given ; we can deduce a free body diagram which will aid us in solving the question.
IF we take a look at the second diagram attached below ; we will have a clear understanding of what the free body diagram of the system looks like :
From the diagram; we can determine the length of BC by using pyhtagoras theorem;
SO;
[tex]L_{BC}^2 = L_{AB}^2 + L_{AC}^2[/tex]
[tex]L_{BC}^2 = (3.5+2.5)^2+ 4^2[/tex]
[tex]L_{BC}= \sqrt{(6)^2+ 4^2}[/tex]
[tex]L_{BC}= \sqrt{36+ 16}[/tex]
[tex]L_{BC}= \sqrt{52}[/tex]
[tex]L_{BC}= 7.2111 \ m[/tex]
The cross -sectional of the cable is calculated by the formula :
[tex]A = \dfrac{\pi}{4}d^2[/tex]
where d = 4mm
[tex]A = \dfrac{\pi}{4}(4 \ mm * \dfrac{1 \ m}{1000 \ mm})^2[/tex]
A = 1.26 × 10⁻⁵ m²
However, looking at the maximum deflection in length [tex]\delta[/tex] ; we can calculate for the force [tex]F_{BC[/tex] by using the formula:
[tex]\delta = \dfrac{F_{BC}L_{BC}}{AE}[/tex]
[tex]F_{BC} = \dfrac{ AE \ \delta}{L_{BC}}[/tex]
where ;
E = modulus elasticity
[tex]L_{BC}[/tex] = length of the cable
Replacing 1.26 × 10⁻⁵ m² for A; 200 × 10⁹ Pa for E ; 7.2111 m for [tex]L_{BC}[/tex] and 0.006 m for [tex]\delta[/tex] ; we have:
[tex]F_{BC} = \dfrac{1.26*10^{-5}*200*10^9*0.006}{7.2111}[/tex]
[tex]F_{BC} = 2096.76 \ N \\ \\ F_{BC} = 2.09676 \ kN[/tex] ---- (1)
Similarly; we can determine the force [tex]F_{BC}[/tex] using the allowable maximum stress; we have the following relation,
[tex]\sigma = \dfrac{F_{BC}}{A}[/tex]
[tex]{F_{BC}}= {A}*\sigma[/tex]
where;
[tex]\sigma =[/tex] maximum allowable stress
Replacing 190 × 10⁶ Pa for [tex]\sigma[/tex] ; we have :
[tex]{F_{BC}}= 1.26*10^{-5} * 190*10^{6} \\ \\ {F_{BC}}=2394 \ N \\ \\ {F_{BC}}= 2.394 \ kN[/tex] ------ (2)
Comparing (1) and (2)
The magnitude of the force [tex]F_{BC} = 2.09676 \ kN[/tex] since the elongation of the cable should not exceed 6mm
Finally applying the moment equilibrium condition about point A
[tex]\sum M_A = 0[/tex]
[tex]3.5 P - (6) ( \dfrac{4}{7.2111}F_{BC}) = 0[/tex]
[tex]3.5 P - 3.328 F_{BC} = 0[/tex]
[tex]3.5 P = 3.328 F_{BC}[/tex]
[tex]3.5 P = 3.328 *2.09676 \ kN[/tex]
[tex]P =\dfrac{ 3.328 *2.09676 \ kN}{3.5 }[/tex]
P = 1.9937 kN
Hence; the maximum load P that can be applied is 1.9937 kN
Find the minimum diameter of an alloy, tensile strength 75 MPa, needed to support a 30 kN load.
Answers
Answer:
The minimum diameter to withstand such tensile strength is 22.568 mm.
Explanation:
The allow is experimenting an axial load, so that stress formula for cylidrical sample is:
[tex]\sigma = \frac{P}{A_{c}}[/tex]
[tex]\sigma = \frac{4\cdot P}{\pi \cdot D^{2}}[/tex]
Where:
[tex]\sigma[/tex] - Normal stress, measured in kilopascals.
[tex]P[/tex] - Axial load, measured in kilonewtons.
[tex]A_{c}[/tex] - Cross section area, measured in square meters.
[tex]D[/tex] - Diameter, measured in meters.
Given that [tex]\sigma = 75\times 10^{3}\,kPa[/tex] and [tex]P = 30\,kN[/tex], diameter is now cleared and computed at last:
[tex]D^{2} = \frac{4\cdot P}{\pi \cdot \sigma}[/tex]
[tex]D = 2\sqrt{\frac{P}{\pi \cdot \sigma} }[/tex]
[tex]D = 2 \sqrt{\frac{30\,kN}{\pi \cdot (75\times 10^{3}\,kPa)} }[/tex]
[tex]D = 0.0225\,m[/tex]
[tex]D = 22.568\,mm[/tex]
The minimum diameter to withstand such tensile strength is 22.568 mm.
What's the "most common" concern with using variable frequency drives (VFDs)? 1) carrier frequency 2) harmonic distortion 3) hertz modulation
Answers
The common" concern with using variable frequency drives (VFDs) is C. hertz modulation.
What is variable frequency drive?It should be noted that a variable frequency drive simply means a type of motor drive that us used in mechanical drive system.
In this case, common" concern with using variable frequency drives (VFDs) is hertz modulation
Learn more about frequency on:
brainly.com/question/6985885
#SPJ9
