Write a general expression for the force that the spring exerts on the mass, in term of k and x. Choose the initial position of the front of the spring to be xi

Answer:

8.93*10^13 N.

Explanation:

       [tex]F_{g}= \frac{G*m_{1}*m_{s}}{r_{s}^{2} }[/tex]

       [tex]F_{g}= \frac{6.67e-11Nm^2/kg^2*1.99e30 kg*67.3 kg}{10e4m^2} = 8.93e13 N[/tex]

Answer:

 m = 2,759 kg

Explanation:

For this exercise we use the torque relationship

           τ = I α

the moment is

          τ= F r sin θ

since the force is tangential to the ring, the angle is 90º sin 90 = 1

          τ = F r

the moment of inertia of a ring is given by

         I = m r²

let's substitute

           F r = m r²α

            m = F / r α

let's calculate

          m = 40 / (0.10 145)

          m = 2,759 kg

In  Medicine, "etiology" means the origin or cause of a disease.

Similar to Hippocrates, modern scientists who study etiology believe that   diseases come from natural causes such as bites from infected insects.

Answer:diseases come from natural causes such as bites from infected insects

Explanation: just took test

Answer:

y(i) = h

v(y.i) = 0

Explanation:

See attachment for elaboration

Answer:

The magnitude is [tex]B = \frac{450}{7.9* 10^5}[/tex]

The direction is  the positive x axis

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The  electric field is  E = 450 V/m in the negative y ‑direction

   The speed of the proton is  [tex]v= 7.9* 10^5\  m/s[/tex] in the positive z direction

Generally the overall force acting on  the proton is mathematical represented as

              [tex]F_E =  q(\vec E + \vec v  * \vec B)[/tex]

Now for the beam of protons to continue un-deflected along its straight-line trajectory then  [tex]F_E =0[/tex]

So

          [tex] 0  =  q( E (-y) + v(z)  * \vec B)[/tex]

=>      [tex]E\^y = v \^ z  * \vec B[/tex]

Generally from unit vector cross product vector multiplication

         [tex]\^ z  \ *  \  \^ x  =  \^  y[/tex]

So the direction of  B (magnetic field must be in the positive x -axis )

So

       [tex]E\^y = v \^ z  *  B\^ x [/tex]

=>     [tex]E\^y = vB ( \^ z  *  \^ x) [/tex]

=>     [tex]E\^y = vB ( \^y) [/tex]        

=>      [tex]E = vB [/tex]  

=>      [tex]B = \frac{450}{7.9* 10^5}[/tex]

=>      [tex]B =  0.0005696 \ T [/tex]  

Answer:

T = 1.4696 10⁴ years

Explanation:

For this exercise we must use Kepler's laws, specifically the third law which is the application of the universal law of gravitation to Newton's second law

               F = ma

               G m M / r² = m a_c = m v² / r

                G M / r = v²

the speed of the circular orbit is

               v = 2π r / T

we substitute

               G M / r = 4π² r² / T²

               T² = (4π² / G M)  r³

Kepler proved that this expression is the same if the radius is changed by the semi-major axis of an ellipse

               T² = (4π² /GM)  a³

the constant is worth

                (4π² / GM) = 2.97 10⁻¹⁹    s² / m³

let's reduce the distance to SI units

AU is the distance from the Earth to the Sun

               a = 600 AU = 600 AU (1.496 10¹¹ m / 1 AU)

               a = 8.976 10¹³ m

               T² = 2.97 10⁻¹⁹ (8.976 10¹³)³

               T² = 21.4786 10²²

               T = 4.63 10¹¹ s

Let's reduce to years

               T = 4.63 10¹¹s (1 h / 3600s) (1 day / 24 h) (1 year / 365 days)

               T = 1.4696 10⁴ years

Answer:

[tex]K=4\times 10^4\ J[/tex]

Explanation:

Given that,

Mass of cannon is,M =  2000 kg

Mass of projectile, m = 2 kg

Velocity of the projectile, v = 200 m/s

We need to find the kinetic energy of the projectile. We know that the formula for the kinetic energy of an object is given by :

[tex]K=\dfrac{1}{2}mv^2\\\\\text{Putting all the values, we get}\\\\K=\dfrac{1}{2}\times 2\times (200)^2\\\\K=40000\ J[/tex]

or

[tex]K=4\times 10^4\ J[/tex]

So, the kinetic energy of the projectile will be [tex]4\times 10^4\ J[/tex].

Answer:

Follows are the solution to this question:

Explanation:

Please find the correct question in the attached file:

The two ways to charge an object are Friction and Induction.

To charge and object generally we can think of three ways, Friction, Conduction, and Induction. Here I am going to explain charging by friction and induction.

(i) Charging by Friction:

In this case, two objects are rubbed against each other. The friction between the two objects creates enough energy for the transfer of charges  ( electrons) from one object's surface to the other. So the imbalance in the electrons produces a charge on the objects.

(ii) Charging by induction:

In this case, an already charged object is brought near a neutral object but there is no contact between the objects. The charged object attracts or repels the electrons of the neutral object, depending upon the type of charge it has. Thus creating a charge imbalance in the neutral object.

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Answer:

The answer is below

Explanation:

An LR series circuit has a differential equation in the form of:

[tex]L\frac{di}{dt}+iR=E(t)\\ \\Given\ that\ 50H,R=5\ ohms,E(t)=200,for\ 0 \leq t \leq\ 50. Hence:\\\\50\frac{di}{dt}+5i =200\\\\\frac{di}{dt}+0.1i =4\\\\Solving\ the\ differential\ equation:\\\\The\ integrating\ factor(I)=e^{\int\limits {0.1} \, dt }=e^{0.1t}. The\ DE\ becomes:\\\\e^{0.1t}\frac{di}{dt}+e^{0.1t}(0.1i) =4e^{0.1t}\\\\e^{0.1t}i=\int\limits {4e^{0.1t}} \, dt \\\\e^{0.1t}i=40e^{0.1t}+A\\\\i(t)=40+Ae^{-0.1t}\\\\but\ i(0)=0\\\\0=40+Ae^{-0.1(0)}\\\\A=-40\\\\i(t)=40-40e^{-0.1t}\\\\[/tex]

At 50 seconds:

[tex]i(50)=40-40e^{-0.1*50}\\\\i(50)=40-40e^{-5}[/tex]

[tex]L\frac{di}{dt}+iR=E(t)\\ \\Given\ that\ 50H,R=5\ ohms,E(t)=0,for\ t> 50. Hence:\\\\50\frac{di}{dt}+5i =0\\\\\frac{di}{dt}+0.1i =0\\\\\frac{di}{dt}=-0.1i\\\\\frac{di}{i}=-0.1dt\\\\\int\limits {\frac{di}{i}} =\int\limits {-0.1} \, dt\\ \\ln(i)=-0.1t+A\\\\taking\ exponential:\\\\i=e^{-0.1t+A}\\\\i=e^{-0.1t}e^A\\\\i(t)=Ce^{-0.1t}\\\\i(50)=40-40e^{-5}=Ce^{-5}\\\\C=40(e^5-1)\\\\i(t)=40(e^5-1)e^{-0.1t}\\\\[/tex]

[tex]i(t)=\left \{ {{40-40e^{-0.1t}\ \ \ \ 0 \leq t \leq 50 } \atop {40(e^5-1)e^{-0.1t}\ \ \ \ t>50}} \right.[/tex]

The answer is letter C vro

thanks me.later

The correct arrangement of the question is;

If a projectile hits a stationary target, and the projectile continues to travel in the same direction,

A) the mass of the projectile is less than the mass of the target.

B) the mass of the projectile is equal to the mass of the target.

C) the mass of the projectile is greater than the mass of the target.

D) nothing can be said about the masses of the projectile and target without further information.

E) this is an unphysical situation and will not actually happen.

Answer:

Option C: The mass of the projectile is greater than the mass of the target.

Explanation:

We want to find what will happen when a projectile continues in motion after it hits a target.

Now, for the projectile to keep moving in that direction after it hits the target, it means it had a force bigger than the force of the target to overpower it and force it to move with it.

Now, from law of inertia, Force = ma.

But in this case acceleration is 0 because the speed of the projectile is constant.

Thus, the force depends on the mass. So for a higher force, the mass of the projectile has to be more than that of the stationary object.

Thus, option C is correct

when the lava erupted from the volcano basalt was the rock that cooled quickly or basalt was the only one rock that cooled quickly after the lava erupted from the volcano

Explanation:

plz don't forget to mark me brainliest

Answer:

throw them away............

Answer:

The volume in cubic centimeters is 1,440,000

Explanation:

You know that an object has a volume of 1.44 m³  and you want to calculate the volume in cubic centimeters cm³.

The rule of three or is a way of solving problems of proportionality between three known values and an unknown value, establishing a relationship of proportionality between all of them.

If the relationship between the magnitudes is direct, that is, when one magnitude increases, so does the other (or when one magnitude decreases, so does the other), the direct rule of three must be applied. To solve a direct rule of three, the following formula must be followed:

a ⇒ b

c ⇒ x

So, [tex]x=\frac{c*b}{a}[/tex]

Since 1 m³ is equal to 1,000,000 cm³ ( this is the conversion factor) , then you can apply the following rule of three: if 1 m³ is equal to 1,000,000 cm³, 1.44 m³ is equal to how many cm³?

[tex]cm^{3} =\frac{1.44m^{3}*1,000,000 cm^{3} }{1m^{3} }[/tex]

cm³=1,440,000

The volume in cubic centimeters is 1,440,000

Answer:

1800 m/s

Explanation:

The equation is v = fλ

λ= 0.75

f = 2400 Hz

V = 2400 × 0.75

V = 1800 m/s

[ you did not give units for wavelength, I assumed it would be m/s]

Answer:

T₂ = 49.3°C

Explanation:

Applying law of conservation of energy to the system we get the following equation:

Energy Supplied by Resistor = Energy Absorbed by Tank + Energy Absorbed by Water

E = mC(T₂ - T₁) + m'C'(T'₂ - T'₁)

where,

E = Energy Supplied by Resistor = 100 KJ = 100000 J

m = mass of copper tank = 13 kg

C = Specific Heat of Copper = 385 J/kg.°C

T₂ = Final Temperature of Copper Tank

T₁ = Initial Temperature of Copper Tank = 27°C

T'₂ = Final Temperature of Water

T'₁ = Initial Temperature of Water = 50°C

m' = Mass of Water = 4 kg

C' = Specific Heat of Water = 4179.6 K/kg.°C

Since, the system will come to equilibrium finally. Therefor:  T'₂ = T₂

Therefore,

(100000 J) = (13 kg)(385 J/kg.°C)(T₂ - 27°C) + (4 kg)(4179.6 J/kg.°C)(T₂ - 50°C)

100000 J = (5005 J/°C)T₂ - 135135 J + (16718.4 J/°C)T₂ - 835920 J

100000 J + 135135 J + 835920 J = (21723.4 J/°C)T₂

(1071055 J)/(21723.4 J/°C) = T₂

T₂ = 49.3°C

Answer:

1. frequency (f) = 4.194 × 10^14Hz

2. Energy of photon (E) = 2.779 × 10^-19 J

3. Color is RED

Explanation:

1. Based on the information in this question, a visible light has a wavelength of 715.3 nm.

λ = v/f

Where; λ = wavelength (nm)

v = speed of light (3 × 10^8m/s)

f = frequency (Hz)

f = v/λ

f = 3 × 10^8/715.3 × 10^-9

f = 0.004194 × 10^(8+9)

f = 0.004194 × 10^17

f = 4.194 × 10^14Hz

2. Energy per photon is calculated thus;

E = hf

Where; E = energy of photon (J)

h = Planck's constant (6.626 × 10^-34 J/s)

f = frequency (Hz)

E = 6.626 × 10^-34 × 4.194 × 10^14

E = 27.789 × 10^(-34+14)

E = 27.789 × 10^-20

E = 2.779 × 10^-19 J

3. Based on the wavelength range of the visible spectrum, wavelength of 715.3nm falls between 625-740nm, which is RED color of light. Hence, the color of the visible light is RED.

The frequency is "[tex]419.5\times 10^{12} \ s^{-1}[/tex]", energy per photon is "[tex]2.780\times 10^{-19} \ J[/tex]" and the color is "red".

Given:

Wavelength,

or,

           [tex]= 715.1 \ nm\times (10^-9 \ m/nm)[/tex]

As we know the formula,

→ [tex]Frequency = \frac{Speed \ of \ light}{wavelength}[/tex]

By substituting the values, we get

                    [tex]= \frac{(3\times 10^8) }{715.1\times 10^{-9} }[/tex]

                    [tex]= 419.5\times 10^{12} \ s^{-1}[/tex]  

Now,

The energy per photon will be:

→ [tex]E = Planck's \ constant\times Frequency[/tex]

      [tex]= 6.626\times 10^{-34}\times 419.5\times 10^{12}[/tex]

      [tex]= 2.780\times 10^{-19} \ J[/tex]

Thus the above answer is correct.

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Answer:

5 meters per second squared

Explanation:

We calculate the acceleration using the formula:

a = (vf - vi) / t

where "vf" is the final velocity, "vi" the initial velocity, and "t" the time it took to change from the initial velocity to the final one.

In our case:

a = (45 - 5) / 8 = 40 / 8 = 5 m/s^2

Answer:

t = 5.77 s

Explanation:

This exercise will use Newton's second law for rotational motion

            τ = I α

             α = τ / I

             α = 66/175

             α = 0.3771   rad/s²

now we can use the rotational kinematics relations, remember that all angles must be in radians

            θ = 1 rev = 2π radians

            θ = w₀ t + ½ α t²

as the wheel starts from rest w₀ = 0

             t = √ (2θ/α)

let's calculate

             t = √ (2 2π / 0.3771)

             t = 5.77 s

Answer:

8.29m/s

Explanation:

Given

Height of hill H = 3.50m

Initial velocity u = 0m/s

Required

Final velocity v

Using the equation of motion

v² = u²+2gH

v² = 0²+2(9.81)(3.5)

v² = 0+7(9.81)

v² = 68.67

v = √68.67

v = 8.29m/s

Hence the final velocity of the hoop is 8.29m/s

The two balls have the same acceleration because they are in free fall.

The two balls projected downwards from the top of the build are influenced by gravity. Both ball experience free fall due to gravity.

The equation of motion of the two ball is given as;

v² = u² + 2gh

where;

Thus, we can conclude that the two balls have the same acceleration because they are in free fall.

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Answer:

Objects want to keep doing the same thing is a way of stating Newtons First Law.

The correct option is (a) inertia. "Objects want to keep doing the same thing" it implies a connection to the principle of inertia in physics. Inertia is the property of matter that resists changes in its state of motion or rest.

According to Newton's first law of motion, an object will remain at rest or continue moving in a straight line at a constant velocity unless acted upon by an external force. This property is commonly known as "the law of inertia." In other words, objects tend to maintain their current state of motion (whether at rest or in motion) unless influenced by an external force.

When we say "Objects want to keep doing the same thing," we're drawing an analogy between this scientific principle and human behavior. It suggests that objects, like humans, have a natural inclination to resist change and continue their current course of action. This analogy helps convey the idea that objects exhibit a tendency to persist in their existing state.

"Objects want to keep doing the same thing" to inertia emphasizes the notion that objects, like humans, tend to maintain their current state of motion or rest unless influenced by an external force.

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#SPJ2

The correct question is:

Objects want to keep doing the same thing is a way of stating ......

a) inertia

b) force

c) power

d) moment

Answer:

La aceleración necesaria para detener el avión es - 10.42 m/s².

Explanation:

Un movimiento uniformemente acelerado (M.U.A) es aquél cuya aceleración es constante y la velocidad de un objeto cambia a medida que el movimiento evoluciona.

Siendo la aceleración "a" el cambio de velocidad al tiempo transcurrido en un punto A a B, la velocidad inicial la velocidad que tiene un cuerpo al iniciar su movimiento en un período de tiempo y la velocidad final la velocidad que tiene un cuerpo al finalizar su movimiento en un período de tiempo, entonces en  M.U.A se cumple:

Vf² - Vo² = 2*a*d

donde:

En este  caso:

Reemplazando:

(0 m/s)² - (50 m/s)² = 2*a*120 m

Resolviendo:

[tex]a=\frac{(0 m/s)^{2} -(50 m/s)^{2} }{2*120 m}[/tex]

a= - 10.42 m/s²

La aceleración necesaria para detener el avión es - 10.42 m/s².

Answer:

2 x 10^10 years.

Explanation:

Given that the sun produces energy via nuclear fusion at the rate of 4×1026 J/s . Based on the proposed overall fusion equation, how long will the sun shine in years before it exhausts its hydrogen fuel? (Assume that there are 365 days in the average year.)

Let us first calculate energy from hydrogen gas.

4(1.007825) + 2(0.00549) - 4.002603 = 0.029795 amu

Since 4.0313 amu H+ > 0.029795 amu =  ratio of 1 to 0.00739

dE = ((2*10^30 kg) x 0.8 x 0.25)(3.00x10^8 m/s)^2 = 3.6x10^46 kg x m^2/s^2  

3.6x10^46 kg x m^2/s^2 x 0.00739 = 2.6604 x 60^44 kg x m^2/s^2

4x10^26 J/s x s = 2.6604x10^44 kg x m^2/s^2  solve for s.

s = 6.651x10^17 seconds

6.651x10^17 seconds x 1 min/60 s x 1 hr/ 60 min x 1 day/ 24 hr x 1 yr / 365 days = 2.1x10^10 years

 Based on the proposed overall fusion equation, it will therefore take the sun shine 2 x 10^10 years before it exhausts its hydrogen fuel.

Answer:

Where

Explanation:

Answer:

* positive repulsion, which makes the electrons move as far away as possible

* Attraction with the core atomizes

he analysis is the foundations of quantum theorizing

Explanation:

Electrons are deposited in an atom following two principles.

* positive repulsion, which makes the electrons move as far away as possible

* Attraction with the core atomizes

The mathematical model used for the analysis is the foundations of quantum theorizing

Answer:

a)  + Q charge is inducce that compensates for the internal charge

b) There is no excess charge on the external face q_net = 0

c) E=0

Explanation:

Let's analyze the situation when a negative charge is placed inside the cavity, it repels the other negative charges, leaving the necessary positive charges to compensate for the -Q charge. The electrons that migrated to the outer part of the sphere, as it is connected to the ground, can pass to the earth and remain on the planet; therefore on the outside of the sphere the net charge remains zero.

With this analysis we can answer the specific questions

a)  + Q charge is inducce that compensates for the internal charge

b) There is no excess charge on the external face q_net = 0

c) If we create a Gaussian surface on the outside of the sphere the net charge on the inside of this sphere is zero, therefore there is no electric field, on the outside

d) If it is very reasonable and this system configuration is called a Faraday Cage

e) We cannot apply this principle to gravity since there are no particles that repel, in all cases the attractive forces.

Answer:

The velocity is [tex]v_b = 20.17 \ m/s[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The mass of the ball is  [tex]m = 0.245 \ kg[/tex]

   The radius is  [tex]r =  59.8 \  cm  =  0.598 \ m[/tex]

   The force is  [tex]F =  30.9 \ N[/tex]

   The speed of the ball is  [tex]v = 16.0 \ m/s.[/tex]

Generally the kinetic energy at the top of the circle is mathematically represented as

    [tex]K_t  =  \frac{1}{2} *  m  *  v^2[/tex]

=> [tex]K_t  =  \frac{1}{2} *  0.245   *  16.0 ^2[/tex]  

=> [tex]K_t  =  31.36 \ J[/tex]  

Generally the work done by the force applied on the ball from the top to the bottom  is mathematically represented as

       [tex]W =  F *  d[/tex]

Here  d is the length of  a semi - circular arc which is mathematically represented as

       [tex]d =  \pi * r[/tex]

So

      [tex]W =  30.9 *  0.598  [/tex]

      [tex]W = 18.48 \ J [/tex]

Generally the kinetic energy at the bottom is mathematically represented as

      [tex]K_b  =  \frac{1}{2} *  m *  v_b^2[/tex]

=>    [tex]K_b  =  \frac{1}{2} *  0.245  *  v_b^2[/tex]

=>   [tex]K_b  =  0.1225  *  v_b^2[/tex]

From the law of energy conservation

     [tex]K_t +  W  =K_b[/tex]

=>    [tex]31.36+  18.48 = 0.1225  *  v_b^2[/tex]

=>    [tex]v_b = 20.17 \ m/s[/tex]

Answer:

D

Explanation:

Because first phase thr it will follow the law of thermodynamics as it will reach the equilibrium point then decrrases afterwards

Answer:

The value is  [tex]v = 1.309*10^{5}\ m/s[/tex]

Explanation:

The radius is [tex]r = 7.40 *10^{20} \  m[/tex]

The mass of the ordinary matter is [tex]M_{rod} =  1.90 *10^{41}\  kg[/tex]

Generally the speed of the star is mathematically represented as

         [tex]v = \sqrt{\frac{G * M}{r} }[/tex]

Here G is the gravitational constant with a value

        [tex]G = 6.67384 * 10^{-11}[/tex]

So

      [tex]v = \sqrt{\frac{6.67384 * 10^{-11} * 1.90 *10^{41}}{7.40 *10^{20}} }[/tex]

=>    [tex]v = 1.309*10^{5}\ m/s[/tex]