The statement that indicates an understanding of hypoglycemia refers to the requirement to recheck sugar (glucose) during a regular period of time (e.g., 15 minutes).
What is hypoglycemia?Hypoglycemia is a health condition associated with the presence of low levels of glucose in the blood.
The better way to treat this condition is to eat/drink 15-20 grams (gr) of sugar which are fast-acting (simple) carbohydrates.
In conclusion, the statement that indicates an understanding of hypoglycemia refers to the requirement to recheck sugar (glucose) during a regular period of time (e.g., 15 minutes).
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Barbiturates and benzodiazepines are included in which category of drugs?.
Answer:
Like barbiturates, benzos are classified as sedative-hypnotic drugs and central nervous depressants. They also treat anxiety, panic disorders, sleep problems, and seizure disorders.
A normal-hearing infant should begin to babble and imitate speech by:
Group of answer choices
six to eight months.
1-2 months
3-4 months
4-5 months
Answer:
six to eight months.............what is the correct sequence of actions for performing mouth to mouth and nose breaths for an infant
The correct sequence of actions for performing mouth to mouth and nose breaths for an infant would be explained below.
What is cardiopulmonary resuscitation?Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is an emergency procedure that combines rescue breathing (mouth-to-mouth) and chest compressions to help make blood available foro the brain.
The correct sequence of actions for performing mouth to mouth and nose breaths for an infant include the following:
Ensure the head is in a neutral position and lift the chin.Take a breath, then cover your baby's mouth and nose with your mouth, making sure it's sealed. If you cannot cover both the mouth and nose at the same time, just seal 1 with your mouth. If you choose the nose, close the lips to stop air escaping.Blow a breath steadily into the baby's mouth and nose over 1 second. It should be sufficient to make the chest visibly rise.Keeping their head tilted and chin lifted, take your mouth away and watch for the chest to fall as air comes out.Take another breath and repeat this sequence 4 more times.Learn more about respiration here:
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The patient has a mass on his forehead; he says it is from a piece of sheet metal from a laceration to his forehead months ago. He has an X-ray showing a foreign body is in the mass. After obtaining consent, the metal fragment foreign body is removed from the subcutaneous tissue. What ICD-10-CM code(s) is/are reported
Reported ICD-10-CM codes are ICD 10 R22. 0 Localized swelling, mass or tumor of the head and ICD 10 · W45 - Penetration of a foreign body or object through the skin.
What is the ICD l10?ICD-10 LIST - The International Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems (also known as the International Classification of Diseases - ICD 10) is published by the World Health Organization (WHO) and aims to standardize the coding of diseases and other health-related problems .
With this information, we can conclude that reported ICD-10-CM codes are ICD 10 R22. 0 Localized swelling, mass or tumor of the head and ICD 10 · W45 - Penetration of a foreign body or object through the skin.
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What was the first federal law regulating drugs that prevented inaccurately labeled medications from crossing state lines
The first federal law regulating drugs can also be termed the pure food and drug law.
This original Food and Drugs Act is passed by Congress on June 30 and signed by President Theodore Roosevelt. This law states that the pure food and drug act was the first federal law regulating drugs. It prevented the manufacture, sale, or distribution of inaccurately labeled food and drugs across state lines, this also requires that labels must not contain false information about a drug's strength and purity. It prohibits interstate commerce in misbranded and adulterated foods, drinks, and drugs that are supplied there.
That's why the first federal law regulating drugs can be termed the pure food and drug law.
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A new nurse will be monitoring a client during a moderate sedation procedure for the first time, and is discussing this with the charge nurse. Which statement made by the newly graduated nurse will the charge nurse verify as accurate
The client should be monitored for a longer than normal period is the statement which is accurate.
What is Sedation?This is done using drugs known as sedatives which slows down the brain functions and depression of responsiveness to external stimulation.
Since it's her first time, she has to monitor the client longer than normal to ensure it doesn't wear out before the medical procedure is completed.
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when assessing distal circulation in a patient’s lower extremities, which pulse should you palpate?
When assessing the distal circulation in a patient's lower extremities, the pulses you should palpate are femoral, popliteal, tibial, and foot.
What are the palpable pulses in the lower limbs?The evaluation of the arteries of the lower limbs includes palpation of the
femoralpoplitealtibial and pedal pulses.The femoral pulse is palpated at the level of the femoral trigone, at the midpoint between the pubic symphysis and the anterosuperior iliac spine.
With this information, we can conclude that when assessing the distal circulation in a patient's lower extremities, the pulses you should palpate are femoral, popliteal, tibial, and foot.
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A client with chronic alcoholism has been found to have Wernicke encephalopathy. This irreversible complication is characterized by what
The characteristics of Wernicke encephalopathy are;
ophthalmoplegia, ataxia, confusionWhat is alcoholism?The term alcoholism refers to a situation in which a person takes in alcohol excessively to the point that it begins to result in certain health challenges.
There are three signs that usually characterize the irreversible development of Wernicke encephalopathy which are;
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Wernicke's encephalopathy is a degenerative condition of the brain brought on by thiamine deficiency (vitamin B1). It can be brought on by excessive drinking, nutritional deficits, chronic vomiting, eating problems, or side effects from chemotherapy. The thalamus and hypothalamus of the brain are harmed by B1 deficiency.
The features of Wernicke encephalopathy are;
ophthalmoplegia, sataxia, sconfusion
What is meaning of alcoholism?When a person consumes alcohol inordinately to the point where it starts to cause specific health issues, that circumstance is referred to be alcoholism.
The three symptoms listed below typically indicate that Wernicke encephalopathy is developing irreversibly.
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The vigorous CR training zone for a 32-year-old individual with a resting heart rate (RHR) of 55 bmp is _______.
Options:
A.133 to 172 bpm
B. 172 to 201 bpm
C.99 to 134 bpm
D. 157 to 184 bpm
Answer:
The vigorous CR training zone for a 32-year-old individual with a resting heart rate (RHR) of 55 bmp is 133 to 172 bpm
What is resting heart rate?Resting heart rate (RHR) is the average number of beats your heart makes per minute. Your RHR may be impacted if you have a diagnosed heart issue because of things like your medications and the nature of your condition.
The range of a normal resting heart rate (RHR) is 60 to 100 beats per minute (bpm).
If your RHR is regularly over 100 beats per minute, you have tachycardia, and you should consult a doctor, especially if you also experience additional symptoms like tightness in your chest, exhaustion, or shortness of breath.
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the nurse is caring for a client who has premature ventricular contractions. what sign or symptom is observed in this client?
According to the research, the signs in a client who has premature ventricular contractions are strong palpitations or lack of heartbeats.
What are premature ventricular contractions?They are an electrocardiographic finding that shows abnormal activity from the ventricular myocardium.
These early beats that occur in the ventricles are ahead of the patient's base rhythm, so the patient may have constant palpitations, accelerated heartbeat or no heartbeat.
Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, the signs in a client who has premature ventricular contractions are strong palpitations or lack of heartbeats.
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Mrs. Allen has a rare condition for which two different brand name drugs are the only available treatment. She is concerned that since no generic prescription drug is available and these drugs are very high cost, she will not be able to find a Medicare Part D prescription drug plan that covers either one of them. What should you tell her?
She should use the more effective drug for the treatment of the disease in order to treat her condition.
What she do for the treatment of her disease?She should use the drug which is more effective in the treatment of her rare condition because that drug which is more effective, treat her disease very fast as compared to other drug which has low effectiveness.
So we can conclude that she should use the more effective drug for the treatment of the disease in order to treat her condition.
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Answer:
Medicare prescription drug plans are required to cover drugs in each therapeutic category. She should be able to enroll in a Medicare prescription drug plan that covers the medications she needs.
Explanation:
Learning to control aggressive behaviors is important for children's _____ health.
Group of answer choices
mental or social-emotional
cognitive
physical
epigenetic
Answer:
The best answer would be cognitive health (thinking)
Cognitive thinking is of or relating to the mental processes of perception, memory, judgment, and reasoning, as contrasted with emotional and volitional processes.
For children, they learn through experience per say, meaning that it is important to teach them to control their behaviors for the sake of their reasoning of how they deal with certain situations. Aggressive behavior must be controlled which is why it is important for children to learn to control it. Therefore, the best option would be, "Learning to control aggressive behaviors is important for children's cognitive health."
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Using so-called reasons (usually not true) to encourage you to try something. Examples: “It won’t hurt you.” “Your parents will never find out.” “You'll have a lot more fun.”
Peer Pressure is used in situations where egos and esteem rise off of the wrong impressions.
What is peer pressure?Active peer pressure occurs when your friends explicitly persuade you to do something.
Examples are offering and forcing you to drink then criticizing for refusing it. Forcing you to attend a party even your parents do not agree.
On the other hand, passive peer pressure happens within a person's want to fit in to his/her colleagues. It is further classified into social modelling and perception.
Example for social modeling is when you see all your friends are drinking then you just drink also because you do not want to be left out. Perception, on the other hand, is when you perceive that your peers are happy drinking then you drink as well because you believe that you also will be happy doing this.
Thus, this could be the answer
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In what ways can you reduce confusion and be sure physicians receive the proper medical records? Be specific. Have you ever had the opportunity or the challenge of developing a file or tracking system. Share your experiences and what worked and what did not.
No, i did not experienced as such challenge of developing a file or tracking system. The defensibility of a case depends on the medical record, which occasionally poses the toughest challenge. A medical record's main objective is to give a thorough and accurate account of the patient's medical history.
What is medical record?The medical record also serves a crucial secondary purpose, serving as the key piece of evidence in the successful defense of a claim for medical malpractice. A medical malpractice claim typically takes five years to be resolved.
This covers medical issues, diagnostics, your care and treatment, as well as the effects of those interventions. An accurate communication tool, a well-documented medical record reflects all clinically significant aspects of the patient's health.
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The second and third trimesters of pregnancy occur entirely within the _____ period of prenatal development.
The second and third trimesters of pregnancy occur entirely within the fetal period of prenatal development.
What is the fetus?The fetus refers to the unborn offspring in mammals that grows during a given period of prenatal development.
In humans, the fetus is the body structure that generates form the embryonic state of development.
In conclusion, The second and third trimesters of pregnancy occur entirely within the fetal period of prenatal development.
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which condition in a client with a brain injury is contraindicated for magnetic resonance imaging with contrast
Metal aneurysm clips condition in a client with a brain injury is contraindicated for magnetic resonance imaging with contrast.
What is the lifespan of brain aneurysm clips?The surgeon inserts the clip over the entire neck of the aneurysm, taking care not to clip any other vessels. You may use more than one clip. The surgeon then confirms that the aneurysm is completely closed off. The clip or clips will remain in position indefinitely.
The type of cerebral aneurysm clip implanted in a patient is frequently unknown in everyday practice, and ferromagnetic-type clips were in use until the late 1990s.
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What needs to occur in Catalyst if the client did not engage in any maladaptive behaviors during session
If the client did not engage in any maladaptive behaviors during session, record zero for each maladaptive behavior.
What is maladaptive behavior?A maladaptive behavior is defined as any behavior that interferes with an individual's daily life activities and their ability to adjust to and adapt to particular settings.
Some maladaptive behaviors include:
Avoidance,Withdrawal, andPassive aggressionIn the Catalyst app, if the client did not engage in any maladaptive behaviors during session, record zero for each maladaptive behavior.
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A NutritionFacts label for a snack bar lists a total carbohydrate content of 16 g, total fat of 15 g, and total protein of 6 g. The total amount of energy it provides is approximately Group of answer choices 188 calories. 220 calories. 250 calories. 275 calories.
The total amount of energy it provides is approximately 220 calories.
How many calories does it contain?Carbohydrates provide 4 kcal/g to 17 kJ/g. 4 x 16 = 64 kcalProteins provide 4 kcal/g - 17 kJ/g. 4 x 6 = 24 kcalFats provide 9 kcal/g - 37 kJ/g. 9 x 15 = 135kcal64+24+135 = 223kcal
What is calorie?Calories are units of heat measurement. In nutrition, it is used to quantify the energy that a food offers to the organism and the amount of energy that the individual needs daily.
With this information, we can conclude that The total amount of energy it provides is approximately 220 calories.
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which situation would be an indication toward the use of diathermy for its heating effects in wound healing
We have to resort to diathermy for its heating effects in wound healing when there is need for the heating of deep joints.
What is diathermy ?The term diathermy has to do with the use of electric current to produce heat in the body. This heat could be helpful in soothing an inflammation and aiding wound healing.
We have to resort to diathermy for its heating effects in wound healing when there is need for the heating of deep joints.
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Which level of trauma facility has minimal surgical support but can stabilize before transferring to a higher-level trauma facility
A deficiency in __________ is experienced by the majority of children under age 5 in developing countries; this deficiency leads to fatigue, irritability, and difficulty sustaining attention.
A deficiency in iron is experienced by the majority of children under age 5 in developing countries.
What is iron deficiency?Iron deficiency is defined as the lack of sufficient iron in the body leading to a type of anemia called iron deficiency anemia.
The clinical manifestations of this deficiency include;
fatigue, irritability, and difficulty sustaining attention.It is usually experienced by the majority of children under age 5 in developing countries.
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If you want to know if Vitamin D would help sick people get better faster, the independent variable would be:
If you want to know if Vitamin D would help sick people get better faster, the independent variable would be the number of people on the group.
What is an independent variable?It should be noted that an independent variable means the variable that stands alone and isn't changed by the other variables.
In this case, if you want to know if Vitamin D would help sick people get better faster, the independent variable would be the number of people on the group.
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What type of fixed prosthesis could the dental assistant recommend to the patient for the replacement of the gold crown on tooth #28?
The type of fixed prosthesis that could the dental assistant recommend to the patient for the replacement of the gold crown on tooth #28 would be a porcelain coronet with zirconia, whose benefits are high durability, resistance to bite, and decay.
What is Fixed Prosthesis?The fixed prosthesis may be described as a component of the dental prosthesis that agitates the substitute and repair of teeth by artificial alternative methods that cannot be withdrawn or extracted from the mouth.
Another benefit of the porcelain crown with zirconia is also associated with aesthetic aspects, as this approach ensures greater naiveness with the prospect of reaching the color of the patient's innate teeth.
Without the usefulness of metal, the porcelain crown with zirconia obtains more remarkable biological compatibility and undersized provocative threat.
Therefore, it is well described above.
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Barbiturates and benzodiazepines are included in which category of drugs?.
Answer:
sedative-hypnotic drugs and central nervous depressants
Explanation:
Medical term for shingles?
Answer:
Shingles is medically known as "herpes zoster", which comes from the varicella zoster virus.
Explanation:
Answer:
Herpes Zoster
During the second and third trimesters, a pregnant woman who begins pregnancy at a healthy weight should gain approximately ______ pound(s) per week.
To be labeled a good source of a particular nutrient, the food must contain ______% to ______% of the Daily Value for that nutrient.
For good source of a particular nutrient, the food must contain at least between 10% to 19% of the daily value for that nutrient.
What are the nutrients in food?Nutrients in food are those things that we derive from food that nourishes our body and helps our body to fight against different infections.
It is worthy of note that to be labeled a good source of a particular nutrient, the food must contain at least between 10% to 19% of the daily value for that nutrient.
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One way health problems can be addressed is through ________, which includes the use of computers, lasers, and other revolutionary techniques.
One way health problems can be addressed is through technology, which includes the use of computers, lasers, and other revolutionary techniques.
How has technology helped us solve health-related problems?Over the years, we've seen an increase in technological advancement which has been beneficial in solving problems related to medical and health sectors.
Some of these solution processes involves the use of computers in:
Storing, and retrieving information about patients' health.The use of AI and technological devices to carry out appropriate medical treatment for patients. etcLearn more about health technology here:
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Action plans are used to Select one: a. identify and achieve goals. b. evaluate choices and make decisions. c. establish your values and beliefs. d. access valid and reliable health information
Action plans are used to identify and achieve goals.
What is action plan and its purpose?An action plan is a document that have all the steps in order to achieve a specific goal. The purpose of an action plan is to clarify the present resources that are required to reach the goal.
So we can conclude that action plans are used to identify and achieve goals.
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An Rh- mother has an Rh- baby. What is the risk of her next baby's developing hemolytic disease of the newborn
If the Rh- mother has an Rh- baby, the risk of the next baby developing hemolytic disease of the newborn is reduced to zero.
What is hemolytic disease of the newborn?The term hemolytic disease of the newborn is a disease that occur when the baby and the mother does not have blood that matches in terms of rhesus factor.
If the Rh- mother has an Rh- baby, the risk of the next baby developing hemolytic disease of the newborn is reduced to zero.
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