WHATS THE LENGTH ROUND TO THE NEAREST 10th if NEEDED

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

65÷b+8×4=20

Put the value of b=5 in equation

65÷5+8×4=20

According to BDMAS rule

13+32=20

45=20

Bring the terms on one side

45-20=25 Answer

Answer:

false

Step-by-step explanation:

use bidmas :)

ok, let's rewrite this for b = 5

65 ÷ 5 + 8 × 4 = 20

now put brackets

(65 ÷ 5) + (8 × 4) = 20

          (13) + (32) = 20

              13 + 32 = 45

                     45 ≠ 20

false

hope this helped and good luck!

-cheesetoasty

Answer:

34

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex] \bf\green{7.8 \times c + 3.4 = 19} \\ \\ \bf\red{7.8 \times 2 + 3.4 = 19} \\ \\ \blue{\bf{15.6 + 3.4 = 19}} \\ \\ \bf \red{\boxed{ \underline{\underline{\pink{ 19 = 19}}}}}[/tex]

Haha, very easy... :)

Answer: I think it's 40

Step-by-step explanation:

I don't know, I just need points. If you take the 640 and divide it by the nearest angular velocity, then square it, then divide by the radius, you get Bolivia

Answer:

0.0814 = 8.14% probability that at least one of the women has a Chlamydia infection

Step-by-step explanation:

For each women, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they have a Chlamydia infection, or they do not. The probability of a woman having the infection is independent of any other women. This means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

In which [tex]C_{n,x}[/tex] is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]

And p is the probability of X happening.

The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention reports that the rate of Chlamydia infections among U.S. women ages 20 to 24 is 2791.5 per 100,000.

This means that:

[tex]p = \frac{2791.5}{100000} = 0.027915[/tex]

Take a random sample of three U.S. women in this age group.

This means that [tex]n = 3[/tex]

What is the probability that at least one of the women has a Chlamydia infection?

This is:

[tex]P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0)[/tex]

In which

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 0) = C_{3,0}.(0.027915)^{0}.(1-0.027915)^{3} = 0.9186[/tex]

[tex]P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0) = 1 - 0.9186 = 0.0814[/tex]

0.0814 = 8.14% probability that at least one of the women has a Chlamydia infection

Hi,

To add two fraction, they must have  the same denominator.

So  5/6  =  10/12

Now :   10/12 + 1/12 = 11/12

Answer:

D is the correct option

hope it helps you

please mark me as brainlist

Answer:

[tex]\frac{4x}{x-2}+\frac{7}{x-2}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

The general rule for add or subtracting fractions is that the fractions must have a common denominator, meaning that the value under the fraction bar must be the same. This rule is also applicable for algebraic fractions.

Therefore, when the question asks "Which of the following can be added without altering any of the fractions?", one should be looking for two fractions with a common denominator. Thus the answer would be the first option, which is the following;

[tex]\frac{4x}{x-2}+\frac{7}{x-2}[/tex]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The answer is 4/8 or 1/2 pie

Answer:

The answer is 4/8 or 1/2 pie

Have an amazing day :)

Answer:

20.9

Step-by-step explanation:

its the same as the other side, don't think to much about it

Answer:

20.9 Is the right answer

Step-by-step explanation:

hope this helps

Answer:

g (1) = -5(1) -4

-5-4

-9............. .......

Step-by-step explanation:

-5(1)-4=-5-4=-9 Answer

hope it helps

Answer:

400 pick mine as Brainlest

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

It is 400

Step-by-step explanation:

If you reverse it to make it easier on yourself.

500-100 =400

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The correct rule for y in terms of x is

y = 3x - 4

we can check even

here when x = 1

y = 3 * 1 - 4 = - 1

similarly

when x = 2

y = 3 * 2 - 4 = 2

and so on you can check.

hope it helps :)

Answer:

the rule is y=3x-4

Step-by-step explanation:

m=y2-y1/x2-x1

m=2--1/2-1

m= 3/1

m=3

general equation of a line,

y=mx+c

if y=3x+c

if x=1 y=-1

-1=3+c

-4=c

therefore y=3x-4

834,692

If the number is less than 5, you keep the the 90 the same.

If the number is more than 5, the new number would be 834,700.

The answer is

Answer:

2X-Y = 13

-3X+2Y = -18

(2X-3X-Y+2Y) = 13-18

-X +Y= -5

Answer:

QPN and TSU

Step-by-step explanation:

They're both exterior angles and they are both alternate to each other.

Answer:

m=w+6

Step-by-step explanation:

Use 2 points to find the slope, which is 1.

The y intercept is 6

Answer:

12 yd.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: $192.50

Step-by-step explanation:

wages for 40 hrs + wages for overtime work

$160.00 + 6hrs × $5.00 + $2.50 (1/2 hrs)

$192.50

Credit: anjalijalan3126

Answer=D, Y=55x + 4. This is the answer.......

Btw: this is my first answer I done ;)

Answer:

52.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Find inner square (7 * 7 = 49), then find outer triangles (.5*7=3.5 for both) then u get 52.5 plz mark 5 str, helpfull, and brainliest!

Answer:

Lara should buy 8 boxes

Step-by-step explanation:

To start we would need to do

72/10

since 72 isn't a multiple of ten we can round it down to 70, then do

70/10=7

since we still have two teeth, we can put them in their own box so

7+1=8

Answer:

64 outfits I think.

Step-by-step explanation:

The number of the different outfits do Damian have to choose is 600.

A permutation is an act of arranging the objects or elements in order.

Combinations are the way of selecting objects or elements from a group of objects or collections, in such a way the order of the objects does not matter.

Different outfits do Damian have to choose, will be;

⇒3C₁×5C₁×8C₁×5C₁

⇒3×5×8×5

⇒600

Hence,the number of the different outfits do Damian have to select is 600.

To learn more about the permutation and combination, refer:

https://brainly.com/question/13387529

#SPJ2

Answer:

2   1/4 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

1/4 per 1 foot so if there are 9 feet it would be 9/4 then converte that to a proper fraction which is 2  1/4

Answer:

0

200

100

50

150

Step-by-step explanation:

0% of 200 = 0

100% of 200

= ( 100 / 100 ) x 200

= 1 x 200

= 200

50% of 200

= ( 100% of 200 ) / 2

= 200 / 2

= 100

25% of 200

= ( 50% of 200 ) / 2

= 100 / 2

= 50

75% of 200

= ( 75 / 100 ) x 200

= ( 75 x 200 ) / 100

= 75 x 2

= 150

Answer:

The rule for the translations can be written as T -3,1(x,y).

The rule for translations can be written as (x,y)➡️(x-3,y+1).

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

A, and D

Step-by-step explanation:

Took Unit test edge 2022

Answer:

This answer is A

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Subtraction. 10.6 is your answer.

Step-by-step explanation:

14 - 3.4 = 10.6

subtract the rock's volume from the volume of the water.