what ion in the presynaptic neuron signals for neurotransmitters to be exocytosed across the synapse?

Answers

Answer 1

The ion in the presynaptic neuron that signals for neurotransmitters to be exocytosed across the synapse is calcium (Ca2+). When an action potential reaches the axon terminal of the presynaptic neuron, voltage-gated calcium channels open, allowing an influx of calcium ions into the terminal.

The increase in calcium concentration triggers a series of events that cause synaptic vesicles containing neurotransmitters to fuse with the presynaptic membrane. This process, called exocytosis, releases neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft.


These neurotransmitters then diffuse across the synaptic cleft and bind to specific receptors on the postsynaptic neuron's membrane, leading to either excitatory or inhibitory effects depending on the type of neurotransmitter and receptor involved. This process converts the electrical signal of the action potential back into a chemical signal, allowing for communication between neurons.


In summary, calcium ions play a crucial role in the exocytosis of neurotransmitters across the synapse, enabling communication between neurons and the propagation of signals throughout the nervous system.

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consider the nadh formed during glycolysis. what is the final acceptor for its electrons during fermentation? during aerobic respiration? during anaerobic respiration?

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During fermentation, the final acceptor for the electrons from NADH is an organic molecule produced by the metabolic pathway, such as pyruvate or acetaldehyde.

This reduction of organic molecules is what allows for the regeneration of NAD+ so that glycolysis can continue to produce ATP.

During aerobic respiration, the final acceptor for the electrons from NADH is oxygen.

In this process, NADH transfers its electrons to the electron transport chain, which uses the energy to create a proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane. The protons then flow back across the membrane, driving the synthesis of ATP.

During anaerobic respiration, the final acceptor for the electrons from NADH depends on the specific type of electron acceptor that is being used.

For example, in some types of bacteria, the final electron acceptor may be nitrate or sulfate. This allows for the generation of ATP in the absence of oxygen.

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What is the ratio of free fatty acids to glycerol produced through lipid mobilization?

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The ratio of free fatty acids to glycerol produced through lipid mobilization is 3:1.

Fat consists of two parts: glycerol backbone  and three fatty acids tails. fatty acids are composed of a long hydrocarbon chain with a carboxyl group attached at one end. glycerol is organic molecule with three hydroxyl groups.

Triglycerides are fats from the food we eat that are carried in the blood. The fats that we mostly consume in our diet, such as margarines, oil and butter are in the form of triglyceride. These are considered to be the most common type of fat present in human body.

Triglycerides are an essential component for health but if consumed in excess amounts, they can be harmful and there are also chances of increase in the risk of diseases related to heart.

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If the electromotive force of the battery in an AED is found to be â2.0 V while it is charging, the battery is functioning as a:
A.galvanic cell.
B.electrolytic cell.
C.concentration cell.
D.fuel cell.

Answers

The answer is B. electrolytic cell.

An AED (Automated External Defibrillator) is a portable device that delivers an electric shock to the heart in order to restore normal rhythm. It uses a battery as a power source, which must be charged periodically to ensure the device is ready for use.

During the charging process, the battery functions as an electrolytic cell, meaning that electrical energy is used to drive a non-spontaneous chemical reaction (the charging of the battery). The fact that the electromotive force of the battery is measured at -2.0 V indicates that the charging process is taking place, as the potential difference is opposing the flow of electrons.

Galvanic cells, on the other hand, generate electrical energy from a spontaneous chemical reaction, and fuel cells generate electrical energy from the reaction between a fuel and an oxidant. Concentration cells rely on the difference in concentration of a species between two electrodes to generate a potential difference. None of these are applicable to the situation described.

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RuBisCo is encouraged to bind oxygen and photorespiration starts to occur when it is _____ and plants _____

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RuBisCo is encouraged to bind oxygen and photorespiration starts to occur when it is low CO2 concentration and plants close their stomata in hot and dry environments.

When CO2 levels are low, RuBisCo may inadvertently bond with oxygen rather than CO2. The process of photorespiration is started by this reaction, which creates the two-carbon molecule glycolate.

The efficiency of photosynthesis is decreased as a result of the energy and carbon loss caused by this process. When CO2 levels are low and oxygen levels are high, as they are in hot, dry settings, photorespiration occurs.

In these circumstances, plants close their stomata to conserve water, which lowers the CO2 concentration and raises oxygen levels. This triggers the start of photorespiration by encouraging RuBisCo to connect with oxygen rather than CO2.

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describe how countercurrent heat exchange in the circulatory system can prevent the brain from overheating in very hot environments

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Countercurrent heat exchange is a mechanism in the circulatory system that allows the body to regulate its temperature by maintaining a constant flow of heat.

In very hot environments, the brain is susceptible to overheating, which can result in damage or even death.

However, the countercurrent heat exchange system helps prevent this by using the carotid artery and the jugular vein to exchange heat.

As warm arterial blood flows toward the brain, it passes through a network of veins that carry cooler blood back toward the heart.

This exchange allows the warm arterial blood to be cooled before it reaches the brain, preventing it from overheating.

This mechanism is particularly effective in animals that live in hot environments, such as camels and giraffes, which have long necks and specialized blood vessels that allow them to regulate their body temperature and prevent their brains from overheating.

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what do the ovaries communicate with after stimulation by the placenta?

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After stimulation by the placenta, the ovaries communicate with the anterior pituitary gland. This communication ensures a balance of hormones needed for the maintenance of the uterine lining and the proper growth of the embryo.

After stimulation by the placenta, the ovaries communicate with the anterior pituitary gland, the process begins with the placenta producing human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), a hormone that plays a critical role in maintaining pregnancy. The hCG hormone stimulates the corpus luteum, a temporary structure in the ovaries that develops after ovulation. Upon stimulation, the corpus luteum produces essential hormones, primarily progesterone and some estrogen, which help maintain the uterine lining and support the developing embryo.

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If you're cloning an animal such as a frog, things are easier. Frogs (and many other animals)
don't incubate eggs internally

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Cloning an animal involves creating a genetically identical copy of an existing organism. The process of cloning varies depending on the species being cloned. In the case of frogs, the process of cloning is relatively simpler compared to other animals.

Unlike mammals, frogs do not incubate eggs internally. Instead, they lay their eggs in water, where they are fertilized externally. This makes it easier to extract the eggs and manipulate them in a laboratory setting. Once the eggs are extracted, scientists can remove the nucleus, which contains the genetic material, from a healthy egg cell and replace it with the nucleus from a donor cell.

This process, known as somatic cell nuclear transfer, creates a genetically identical copy of the donor frog. The cloned embryo can then be implanted into a surrogate mother frog, where it will develop into a genetically identical offspring.

While the process of cloning a frog may be simpler than other animals, it still requires careful attention to detail and expertise in laboratory techniques. Additionally, there may be ethical and environmental considerations when it comes to cloning animals.

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The decomposition of plant matter acts as a CO2 ________.A. sourceB. sink

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Answer:

A. source

Explanation:

Anything that removes more carbon from the atmosphere than it absorbs is known to as a carbon sink. Examples include soil, plants, and the ocean.

A carbon source, on the other hand, is anything that adds more carbon to the atmosphere than it takes in, such as the combustion of fossil fuels or volcanic eruptions.

and since decomposing leaves gradually return carbon to the environment as carbon dioxide, the decomposition of plant mater is A CO2 source.

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Desert and tundra both ________.
A) lack keystone species
B) have relatively low precipitation
C) have wide temperature variations from season to season
D) lack shrubs
E) lack insects

Answers

Deserts and tundras are two of the world's most extreme environments, characterized by harsh conditions that make life difficult for most organisms. The Correct option is B

One common feature that they share is relatively low levels of precipitation. Deserts are defined by their aridity, receiving less than 10 inches of rainfall per year, while tundras have low levels of precipitation, with less than 20 inches per year. The lack of water in these environments limits the growth of vegetation and makes it difficult for many animals to survive.

Despite the challenges they face, both deserts and tundras are home to a diverse range of plant and animal life that has adapted to these harsh conditions over time. While there may be some similarities between the two environments, there are also many differences that make each one unique.

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You must measure the trait of your first-generation plants

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You must measure the trait of your first-generation plants. To measure the trait of your first-generation plants, you will need to observe and record their physical characteristics, such as height, color, shape, and any other visible traits that may have been inherited from their parent plants.

To measure the trait of your first-generation plants, follow these steps:

1. Identify the specific trait you want to measure in the plants, such as height, leaf size, or flower color.
2. Collect a sample of first-generation plants, making sure they are all at the same growth stage for accurate comparison.
3. Use appropriate tools and methods to measure the trait. For example, use a ruler to measure plant height or a color chart for flower color.
4. Record the measurements for each plant, labeling them as "first-generation plants" and noting the specific trait being measured.
5. Analyze the data to determine any patterns, averages, or variations in the trait among the first-generation plants.

By following these steps, you can effectively measure the trait of your first-generation plants and gain valuable insights into their characteristics.

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How does the polyadenylation signal contribute to completion of an mRNA?

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At the end of transcription, an RNA is given a poly(A) tail through nuclear polyadenylation. The poly(A) tail on mRNAs aids in the termination of transcription, export of the mRNA from the nucleus, and translation while also defending the mRNA molecule from enzymatic destruction in the cytoplasm.

A crucial biological function in eukaryotes is mRNA polyadenylation. Nascent mRNAs are subjected to 3′ end cleavage and the addition of the poly(A) tail, which is crucial for many processes involved in mRNA metabolism in cells.

Two key parts are needed for the polyadenylation process: the pre-mRNA's cis-elements, or poly(A) signals, and the trans-acting factors that carry out the cleavage and attachment of the poly(A) tail at the 3′ end.

The cleavage and subsequent polyadenylation reaction of messenger RNA precursors during 3' processing depend on a protein called Cleavage and Polyadenylation Factor (CPF).

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difference between a direct hormone and a tropic hormone.

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The main difference between a direct hormone and a tropic hormone is their target and mode of action in the body.

Direct hormones, also known as non-tropic hormones, act directly on specific target tissues to produce a physiological response. For example, insulin is a direct hormone that acts on muscle, liver, and adipose tissue to promote glucose uptake and storage.

In contrast, tropic hormones, also known as stimulating hormones, act on other endocrine glands to regulate the secretion of hormones. Tropic hormones do not produce a direct physiological response but rather regulate the secretion of other hormones that have specific physiological effects.

For example, thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is a tropic hormone that stimulates the thyroid gland to produce and release thyroid hormones, which regulate metabolism throughout the body.

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In which cellular location would you expect to find ribosomes translating mRNAs that encode ribosomal proteins?A. the nucleusB. on the rough ERC. in the cytosolD. in the lumen of the ER

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You would expect to find ribosomes translating mRNAs that encode ribosomal proteins in a cellular location in the cytosol. Here option C is the correct answer.

Ribosomes are cellular organelles responsible for protein synthesis, and they are composed of two subunits: a large subunit and a small subunit. Ribosomes can be found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells, and they exist in two forms: free ribosomes and membrane-bound ribosomes.

Ribosomal proteins are encoded by specific mRNAs, and these mRNAs are translated by ribosomes. In eukaryotic cells, ribosomal proteins are synthesized by ribosomes that are located in the cytosol. The ribosomes that synthesize ribosomal proteins are called free ribosomes because they are not attached to the endoplasmic reticulum (ER).

Ribosomal proteins are then transported into the nucleus, where they combine with rRNA to form ribosomes. The newly formed ribosomes are then transported back into the cytosol, where they can translate other mRNAs.

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2. chemicals that stimulate receptors in the oral cavity are known as .

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The chemicals that stimulate receptors in the oral cavity are known as tastants or taste molecules. These tastants interact with taste receptor cells located on our taste buds, which then transmit signals to our brain, allowing us to perceive different tastes such as sweet, salty, sour, bitter, and umami.

Tastants are chemical compounds that are responsible for the sensation of taste. Tastants can be found in a wide variety of foods and beverages, and they are detected by specialized sensory cells in the taste buds located on the tongue and other parts of the mouth. There are five basic tastes that can be detected by the taste buds: sweet, sour, salty, bitter, and umami. Each of these tastes is detected by different types of receptors in the taste buds that are stimulated by specific tastants.

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Used to amplify a small quantity of DNA by several orders of magnitude.

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A single or a small number of copies of a piece of DNA can be amplified by PCR over a wide range of orders of magnitude, producing thousands to millions of copies of a specific DNA sequence.

The sample is first heated to cause the DNA to denature, or separate into two pieces of single-stranded DNA, in order to amplify a section of DNA using PCR. Then, using the original strands as templates, an enzyme known as "Taq polymerase" creates two new strands of DNA.

Simple PCR is frequently used to amplify DNA fragments and find DNA or RNA sequences within a cell or environment in many molecular biology labs. The laboratory tool known as a thermal cycler, sometimes referred to as a thermocycler, PCR machine, or DNA amplifier, is most frequently used to amplify segments.

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A 24 hr _______ _________ is done to screen for increased levels of epi and norepi

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A 24-hour urine catecholamines test is performed to screen for increased levels of epinephrine (epi) and norepinephrine (norepi) in the body.

This test helps in diagnosing various conditions related to the adrenal glands, such as pheochromocytoma, neuroblastoma, or other adrenal tumors, which may cause an abnormal production of these hormones.Epinephrine and norepinephrine are catecholamines, hormones produced by the adrenal glands in response to stress or as part of the "fight or flight" response. They play crucial roles in regulating heart rate, blood pressure, and glucose metabolism.During a 24-hour urine catecholamines test, a patient collects all urine produced within a 24-hour period in a designated container. This ensures that any fluctuations in catecholamine levels are accurately captured. The sample is then sent to a laboratory, where the concentrations of epinephrine and norepinephrine are measured.Elevated levels of these hormones in the urine may indicate the presence of an adrenal tumor or other medical conditions. In such cases, further diagnostic tests, such as imaging studies and blood tests, may be recommended to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment plan.In conclusion, a 24-hour urine catecholamines test is a valuable diagnostic tool to screen for increased levels of epinephrine and norepinephrine, providing essential information for the diagnosis and management of adrenal-related disorders.

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Isolated RNA molecules are generally less stable than DNA at physiological pH because:

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Isolated RNA molecules are generally less stable than DNA at physiological pH because RNA has a 2'-OH group on its ribose sugar whereas DNA has a 2'-H group. This 2'-OH group makes RNA more susceptible to hydrolysis than DNA. The 2'-OH group can participate in intramolecular and intermolecular interactions with the phosphate backbone, resulting in a partial negative charge that can become more acidic and facilitate the hydrolysis of the RNA backbone. Additionally, the 2'-OH group can create reactive intermediates that can cause RNA strand breaks. In contrast, DNA lacks this 2'-OH group, which allows it to be more stable under physiological conditions.

what is symbiosis? what are the three forms that each can take, and how are these relationships symbolized?

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Symbiosis is a close and long-term biological interaction between two different species, where at least one species benefits from the relationship. The three forms of symbiosis are mutualism, commensalism, and parasitism.

1. Mutualism: In mutualism, both species benefit from the relationship. This can be symbolized by the "+" sign for both species (e.g., +/+).2. Commensalism: In commensalism, one species benefits, while the other species is neither helped nor harmed. This can be symbolized by the "+" sign for the benefiting species and the "0" sign for the unaffected species (e.g., +/0).3. Parasitism: In parasitism, one species (the parasite) benefits at the expense of the other species (the host). This can be symbolized by the "+" sign for the parasite and the "-" sign for the host (e.g., +/-).

In summary, symbiosis refers to the interaction between two different species, and it can take the forms of mutualism, commensalism, and parasitism, symbolized by +/+, +/0, and +/-, respectively.

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How have global sea levels changed since 1880?
What effects have these increases in sea level had so far?

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Global sea levels have risen by 8-9 inches since 1880 due to climate change. This increase has resulted in coastal erosion, flooding, saltwater intrusion, displacement of communities, and amplified storm surges.

Since 1880, global sea levels have risen approximately 8-9 inches (21-24 centimeters) due to factors such as thermal expansion, melting glaciers, and polar ice sheets. The main cause of this increase is human-induced climate change, resulting from the emission of greenhouse gases.

Rising sea levels have had significant impacts on coastal ecosystems, infrastructure, and communities. Coastal erosion, increased flooding, and saltwater intrusion into freshwater resources have disrupted habitats and affected agriculture. Low-lying islands and coastal areas are at a higher risk of being submerged, displacing human populations and endangering cultural heritage sites.

Additionally, higher sea levels have led to more frequent and severe storm surges, causing damage to infrastructure and threatening human lives.

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as the chest wall expands, the pressure in the lungs (decreases/increases) and air is (drawn into/pushed out) of the lungs

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As the chest wall expands, the pressure in the lungs decreases and air is drawn into the lungs.

This process is known as inspiration or inhalation. When the diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract, they increase the volume of the thoracic cavity, which in turn decreases the pressure inside the lungs. This decrease in pressure causes air to flow from an area of higher pressure (the atmosphere) to an area of lower pressure (the lungs), filling the lungs with air.

The opposite occurs during expiration or exhalation, when the chest wall recoils and the diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax, causing the volume of the thoracic cavity to decrease and the pressure inside the lungs to increase. This increase in pressure forces air out of the lungs and back into the atmosphere.

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a series of involuntary muscular spasms caused by uncoordinated excitation of motor neurons is called

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A series of involuntary muscular spasms caused by uncoordinated excitation of motor neurons is called muscle fasciculation.

Muscle fasciculation occurs when motor neurons, the nerve cells responsible for controlling muscle movement, become hyperactive and send random, involuntary signals to muscle fibers. This results in uncontrolled muscle twitching or spasms, which can be seen under the skin and felt by the affected individual.

These involuntary spasms can be caused by various factors, such as fatigue, stress, dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, or underlying neurological conditions. In most cases, muscle fasciculation is benign and temporary, resolving on its own without any medical intervention.

However, if the spasms persist or are accompanied by muscle weakness, it may indicate a more serious neurological disorder, such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) or spinal muscular atrophy (SMA).

To prevent or alleviate muscle fasciculation, it is important to maintain a healthy lifestyle, stay hydrated, and ensure a balanced diet with sufficient vitamins and minerals.

Proper rest and stress management can also help reduce the occurrence of these involuntary spasms. If muscle fasciculation becomes chronic or severe, it is essential to consult a medical professional for further evaluation and appropriate treatment.

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a (n) is a specimen or standard against which all experimental samples are compared. a) assay b) control c) substrate d) trial

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Ais a specimen or standard against which all experimental samples are compared. Control . Option C

In any scientific experiment, a control is a sample or specimen that is used as a reference point against which all other experimental samples are compared. This ensures that any observed changes or effects are actually due to the variables being tested, rather than being caused by other factors.
A control can be an untreated or "normal" sample, or it can be treated with a known standard or reference compound. For example, if you were testing a new drug to lower blood pressure, you might compare its effects to a control group of patients who are not given the drug, as well as to a group of patients who are given a standard blood pressure medication.
Controls are essential for ensuring the validity and reliability of experimental results, and they are used in many different fields, from biology to chemistry to engineering. Without controls, it would be difficult or impossible to draw meaningful conclusions from experimental data. Option C is correct.

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in mic!] in mice, black color (b) is dominant to white (b). at a different locus, a dominant allele (a) produces a band of yellow just below the tip of each hair in mice with black fur. this gives a frosted appearance known as agouti. expression of the recessive allele (a) results in a solid coat color. this question is different from question 11. if mice that are heterozygous at both loci are crossed, what is the expected phenotypic ratio of their offspring?

Answers

The estimated phenotypic ratio of their progeny for black and agouti compared to black and solid is therefore 4:1 or 1:1.

Punnett squares and Mendelian genetics concepts must be applied. Let's use B to stand for the recessive gene for white fur and b to stand for the dominant allele for black fur.

Let's use A to stand for the dominant allele that causes agouti (frosted) fur and for solid fur, respectively. The genotypes of the parents are BbAa since they are heterozygous at both loci.

To predict the potential genotypes and phenotypes of their progeny, we can build up a Punnett square as follows:

     | BA    Ba       bA      ba  

BA | BABA BAAa BbBA BbAa

Ba  | BAAa BbAA BbAa Bbaa

bA | bABA bAAa bbBA bbAa

ba  | bAAa bbaa bbAa bbaa

Now, we can determine how many offspring each phenotypic has:

Now, we can determine how many offspring each phenotypic has:

Black and agouti: BABA, BAAa, bABA, bAAa = 4

Black and solid: BbAa, BbAA, bbAa, bbAA = 4

White and agouti: none

White and solid: none

Due to the fact that both parents are heterozygous for black fur, no predicted offspring with white fur can be produced.

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what is the most fundamental difference between the innate immune system and acquired immune system?

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The fact that the innate immune system is present at birth and serves as the first line of defense against pathogens is the most fundamental difference between the innate and acquired immune systems.

On the other hand, the acquired immune system develops after exposure to particular pathogens and provides a response that is more specialized.

Who is the immune system?

The invulnerable framework is an intricate organization of cells, tissues, and organs that cooperate to safeguard the body from contaminations and illnesses. There are two main types of the immune system: the acquired (or adaptive) immune system and the innate immune system.

The skin and mucous membranes are examples of physical barriers in the innate immune system, and cellular components like white blood cells and natural killer cells, which respond to a wide variety of pathogens in a non-specific manner, are also part of the system. These reactions are quick, yet entirely not quite certain or versatile.

Then again, the obtained invulnerable framework, otherwise called the versatile insusceptible framework, is a more intricate framework that creates after openness to explicit microbes and is described by a serious level of particularity and memory. It is made up of B and T lymphocytes, which make antibodies and can identify particular antigens on pathogens.

Although it takes longer for the acquired immune response to develop than the innate immune response, it is more effective at eliminating particular pathogens and provides lasting protection against subsequent infections.

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what function do the alveoli perform?(1 point) responses exchange oxygen in the air for carbon dioxide in the blood exchange oxygen in the air for carbon dioxide in the blood carry oxygenated blood away from the heart carry oxygenated blood away from the heart exchange oxygen in the blood for carbon dioxide in the air exchange oxygen in the blood for carbon dioxide in the air hold receptors for the sense of smell

Answers

During the inhalation and exhalation phases of breathing, the lungs and blood exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide in the alveoli. Inhaled oxygen from the air travels to the body's tissues via the blood after passing through the alveoli. Hence (b) is the correct option.

Our lungs' alveoli, which are small sacs, allow oxygen and carbon dioxide to go from the lungs to the bloodstream.The alveoli and capillaries in your body allow oxygen to permeate into your blood while you breathe. The capillaries distribute the carbon dioxide you exhale through the alveoli, the bronchial tree, and your mouth before leaving your body. The alveoli are only one cell thick, which enables quick gas exchange during breathing.

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what function do the alveoli perform?

a. exchange carbon dioxide in the oxygen air for  in the blood

b. exchange oxygen in the air for carbon dioxide in the blood

c. carry oxygenated blood away from the heart carry oxygenated blood away from the heart exchange

d. oxygen in the blood for carbon dioxide in the air exchange oxygen in the blood for carbon dioxide in the air hold receptors for the sense of smell

Name the four ways heat can be lost

Answers

Heat can be transfered from one object to another by Conduction, Convection , Radiation .

When heat from one object gets transfered to other object by direct contact it is known as conduction. For example,  when we make tea heat from stove gest transfered to steel pan because of direct contact and this is conduction.

In convection method movement of particles of liquid or gas caused transfered of heat from heat sauce. For example, pot of water as we heat it water particles near the heat  source  gets heated first,  we know thata diction of heat causes increase in movement of particles thus this particles move randomly and then relatively empty space is formed.

In conduction and convection there is a medium in which heat gets transfered.  But there is no medium in-between Earth and Sun still we receive heat from it, when heat transfer take place without any medium it is known as Radiation.

The forth is Evaporation -  if the body is too hot , glands in the skin secret sweat onto the surface  to increase heat by Evaporation this cools the body and  sweat  secretion slows down when body temperature return to control.

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define the hormone differences that occur in menopause.

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During menopause, a lady's ovaries quit delivering eggs. The body delivers less of the female chemicals estrogen and progesterone.

Symptoms of menopause arise when these hormones are less abundant. Periods eventually end and become less frequent.

Due to rising levels of control hormones FSH and LH and decreasing levels of estrogen, progesterone, and testosterone, women will experience hormonal imbalance as they enter and progress through menopause.

Your menstrual cycles come to an end during menopause. After a period of one year without menstruation, it is diagnosed. Although menopause can occur at any age, the average age in the United States is 51.

The science basic the progress to menopause incorporates focal neuroendocrine changes as well as changes inside the ovary, the most striking of which is a significant decrease in follicle numbers. FSH, or follicle-stimulating hormone, is a well-known indirect indicator of follicular activity.

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Enzyme required to degrade fibrinous pleuritis?

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Fibrinous pleuritis is a disorder that causes inflammation within the pleural lining of the lungs, which is caused by fibrin deposition in the pleural space. Fibrin is a protein that aids in the production of clots in the blood and is normally degraded by the enzyme plasmin.

Plasminogen, an inactive type of plasmin, must first be converted to active plasmin in order to breakdown fibrin in fibrinous pleuritis. This is accomplished via the action of a class of enzymes that are called plasminogen activators (PAs). PAs are classified into two types: tissue-type plasminogen activator (tPA) and urokinase-type plasminogen activator (uPA).

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what aspect of the action potential is driven by the opening of voltage-gated k (potassium) channels

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The opening of voltage-gated K+ (potassium) channels during the action potential is responsible for the repolarization phase of the action potential.

During an action potential, depolarization of the cell membrane causes voltage-gated Na+ (sodium) channels to open, leading to an influx of Na+ ions into the cell and a reversal of the membrane potential. As the membrane potential approaches its peak, voltage-gated K+ channels open, allowing K+ ions to flow out of the cell, which repolarizes the membrane potential back to its resting state. The efflux of K+ ions through these channels continues until the membrane potential hyperpolarizes briefly before returning to its resting state. The opening and closing of voltage-gated K+ channels are crucial for maintaining the correct balance of ions across the cell membrane and enabling the proper function of nerve and muscle cells.

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β-Oxidation (in Mitochondria)
- what does pathway consist of, what does it release, and how is it used in muscle and adipose tissue versus liver?

Answers

The β-oxidation pathway is a metabolic process that takes place in the mitochondria of cells and involves the breakdown of fatty acids into smaller molecules such as acetyl-CoA.

It is composed of four steps: coenzyme A activation of the fatty acid, acetyl-CoA cleavage into two-carbon and four-carbon molecules, and subsequent breakdown of the four-carbon molecule into two-carbon molecules.

These actions cause ATP, which is energy, to be released. In contrast to liver, muscle and adipose tissue employ -oxidation differently.

Fatty acids are converted into ATP and used as a source of energy in muscle. Fatty acids are used to store energy in adipose tissue.

Fatty acids are broken down and digested in the liver to create ketone bodies, which can be used as an energy source by other organs.

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