what hormone is involved in the stimulation of labor and milke ejection?

Answers

Answer 1

The hormone involved in the stimulation of labor and milk ejection is oxytocin. Oxytocin is a peptide hormone produced by the hypothalamus and released from the posterior pituitary gland.

In pregnant women, oxytocin levels rise as the delivery date approaches, helping to initiate and strengthen uterine contractions during labor. Oxytocin also stimulates the release of prostaglandins, which further stimulate uterine contractions. After childbirth, oxytocin continues to play a critical role in milk production and ejection, it stimulates the contraction of myoepithelial cells in the mammary glands, which causes milk to be ejected from the breast. Oxytocin release is triggered by suckling and other stimuli associated with breastfeeding, promoting the mother-infant bond and ensuring a steady supply of milk for the baby.

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Related Questions

Which process requires more base pairing to occur, homologous recombination or site specific recombination?

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General or homologous recombination process requires more base pairing to occur.

When does recombination typically happen?

In the pachytene phase of the prophase of meiosis-I, genetic recombination takes place. Because recombination takes place during the protracted prophase of meiosis I, prophase-I is the longest and maybe the most significant period of meiosis.

A pair of homologous DNA sequences interact genetically during general recombination, also referred to as homologous recombination. Although other kinds of DNA molecules with the same nucleotide sequence can also take part, these are typically found on two copies of the same chromosome.

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For Most Probable Number (MPN) assay what determines a positive result in the LTB, BGLB and EC tubes?

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A statistical method for determining the number of microorganisms in a sample is the Most Probable Number (MPN) assay.

This method involves the use of a series of tubes containing different concentrations of a growth medium, such as Lactose broth (LTB), Brilliant Green Lactose Bile broth (BGLB), and E. coli broth (EC). The determination of a positive result in these tubes is based on the detection of microbial growth, which can be observed by turbidity or the production of gas. In LTB, a positive result is indicated by acid production, which is detected by a pH indicator.

In BGLB, a positive result is indicated by the presence of gas, which is detected by the displacement of a Durham tube. In EC, a positive result is indicated by the presence of gas, which is also detected by the displacement of a Durham tube. The MPN assay is a useful tool in microbiology for quantifying microbial populations in samples where direct enumeration is difficult or impractical.

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If there were three sets of homologous chromosomes in the cell, how many possible arrangements would there be for the tetrads in late prophase 1?

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There were to be 83 different configurations if the cell included three sets of identical chromosomes. 8,388,608 genetic combinations are available as a result of independent assortment.

What other name is given to the homologous tetrads during prophase 1?

Homologous chromosomes join together to produce tetrads during prophase. Tetrad creation is also referred to as synapsis. Tetrads play a crucial role in the process of crossing over, which occurs when homologous chromosomes exchange DNA sequences.

In meiosis 1, how numerous tetrads are formed?

Sex cells in humans include 23 chromosomes. Therefore, during meiosis, 23 tetrads develop. Condensed identical chromosomes meet up to form tetrads, which are made up of two pairs, during the initial phase of meiosis .

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Which is not a disadvantage of an emulsifiable concentrate pesticide?
A. Higher phytotoxicity hazard
B. May be easily absorbed through human and animal skin
C. Needs constant agitation
D. Flammable

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The answer is B. May be easily absorbed through human and animal skin is not a disadvantage of an emulsifiable concentrate pesticide.

Emulsifiable concentrate pesticides have several potential disadvantages, including a higher phytotoxicity hazard, the need for constant agitation to maintain the emulsion, and flammability hazards. However, they are generally not easily absorbed through human and animal skin since they are diluted in water before application.It's important to note that all pesticides, including emulsifiable concentrates, have potential health and environmental risks associated with their use, and should be handled with care and according to label instructions.

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a friend is changing the tire on her car, and the jack breaks. her hand is caught under the car. a passerby notices, runs over, and lifts the car off her hand. which type of intercellular signal has responded?

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The situation described in the question is an example of a physiological response to an emergency situation, specifically the fight-or-flight response.

In this case, the passerby noticed the emergency and reacted by lifting the car off of the friend's hand. This response is not mediated by intercellular signaling, but rather by the nervous system and the release of hormones such as adrenaline and cortisol. These hormones prepare the body for intense physical activity and help to increase strength and energy in order to respond to a perceived threat.

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Kidneys provide osmoregulation for the body. Consumption of which nutrient creates the greatest need for osmoregulation?

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The body's osmoregulation is provided by the kidneys. The biggest need for osmoregulation results from protein food ingestion. Option d is Correct.

Osmoregulation is the process by which the kidneys control the osmotic pressure of a mammal's blood through significant filtration and purification. The kidneys filter all of the blood in the human body several times each day.

To carry out this task, these organs need roughly 25% of the oxygen taken in through the lungs. In vertebrates, the kidneys, which resemble beans, have various crucial regulatory tasks. The kidneys assist in regulating the blood's water and salt content in addition to eliminating urea and uric acid from it. We refer to this process as osmoregulation. Option d is Correct.

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Correct Question:

Kidneys provide osmoregulation for the body. consumption of which nutrient creates the greatest need for osmoregulation?

a. cellulose

b. fat

c. oil

d. protein

What is meant by "Disturbance shapes and is shaped by landscape heterogeneity"?
Describe an example associated with fires in Yellowstone National Park.

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"Disturbance shapes and is shaped by landscape heterogeneity" means that disturbances, such as natural disasters or human activities, can both influence and be influenced by the variability of different elements within a landscape. an example associated with fires in Yellowstone National Park is various vegetation types, topography, and climate,

Landscape heterogeneity refers to the diversity of habitat types, vegetation, and landforms in an ecosystem. An example associated with fires in Yellowstone National Park can help illustrate this concept. In 1988, a series of large wildfires swept through the park, affecting approximately 36% of its area, the heterogeneous landscape of Yellowstone, including various vegetation types, topography, and climate, shaped the spread and intensity of these fires. In some areas, the diverse vegetation helped slow the fire's progress, while in others, the dense forests and dry conditions facilitated its spread.

Conversely, the fires also shaped the landscape heterogeneity of Yellowstone, the intense fires created a mosaic of burned and unburned areas, promoting habitat diversity and species recolonization. Over time, the landscape has been transformed as new vegetation has grown, resulting in an altered distribution of plant communities, wildlife habitats, and ecosystem processes. This example demonstrates the interconnected relationship between disturbance and landscape heterogeneity, highlighting the dynamic nature of ecosystems.

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what else is reacted during alpha-ketoglutarate > succinyl-CoA?

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During the conversion of alpha-ketoglutarate to succinyl-CoA, a molecule of Coenzyme A (CoA) is added to form succinyl-CoA.

This reaction is catalyzed by the enzyme alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex, which requires several cofactors including thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP), lipoic acid, and FAD. Additionally, NAD+ is reduced to NADH during this reaction, which is an important step in the production of energy via the citric acid cycle. No other molecules are reacted during this specific conversion.
During the conversion of alpha-ketoglutarate to succinyl-CoA, several other components are involved in the reaction.
1. The reaction is catalyzed by an enzyme called alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex.
2. A molecule of coenzyme A (CoA) reacts with alpha-ketoglutarate, forming succinyl-CoA.
3. During this process, a molecule of NAD+ (Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide) is reduced to NADH (Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide Hydrogen).
4. Additionally, a molecule of CO2 (carbon dioxide) is released as a byproduct of the reaction.
In summary, the conversion of alpha-ketoglutarate to succinyl-CoA involves the reaction with coenzyme A, the reduction of NAD+ to NADH, and the release of CO2, all facilitated by the alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex enzyme.

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What 3 major changes are made to pre-mRNA during its conversion to mRNA?

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The 3′ and 5′ ends of the molecule are stabilised and signalled, while intermediate sequences that do not specify the correct amino acids are removed. These are the three most crucial steps in pre-mRNA processing.

To develop into a mature mRNA molecule that can exit the nucleus and be translated, the pre-mRNA must undergo a number of alterations. These include capping, adding a poly-A tail, and splicing, all of which have the ability to be regulated—sped up, slowed down, or altered to produce a new product.

The main transcript, pre-mRNA, contains both coding and non-coding regions. MRNA, or mature messenger RNA, solely carries a gene's coding sequence. Therefore, this is the primary distinction between pre-mRNA and mRNA.

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Humans maintain a nearly constant level of hemoglobin by continually synthesizing and degrading it. This is an example of a(n): A) dynamic steady state. B) equilibrium state. C) exergonic change.D) free-energy change. E) waste of energy

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Option A is correct. Humans maintain a nearly constant level of hemoglobin by continually synthesizing and degrading it. This is an example of a(n) dynamic steady state.

Red blood cells contain a protein called hemoglobin, which binds to oxygen and transports it across the body. In humans, a process of ongoing synthesis and breakdown keeps the amount of hemoglobin in the blood at a level that is essentially constant.

This procedure is an illustration of a dynamic steady state, in which the rates of synthesis and degradation are balanced to maintain a constant level of hemoglobin in the blood.

This is critical for meeting the body's metabolic needs as well as for maintaining the blood's ability to carry oxygen. A situation when the rates of the forward and reverse processes in a chemical reaction are equal is referred to as an equilibrium state.

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Amino acid catabolism releases nitrogen in the form of ammonia. In the liver, the urea cycle prepares ammonia for excretion. Which amino acid could undergo deamidation to produce ammonia for the urea cycle?

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Deamidation is the process of removing an amine group (-NH2) from an amino acid. This process releases ammonia (NH3), which can then be used in the urea cycle for excretion. One amino acid that can undergo deamidation to produce ammonia is glutamine.

Glutamine is an amino acid that is commonly found in proteins and can be obtained from the diet or synthesized in the body from other amino acids. In the liver, glutamine can undergo deamidation by the enzyme glutaminase, which removes the amine group to produce glutamate and ammonia.

The ammonia produced from the deamidation of glutamine can then enter the urea cycle, where it is combined with carbon dioxide to form urea, a less toxic compound that can be excreted by the kidneys. The urea cycle is an important metabolic pathway for the elimination of excess nitrogen from the body, and it helps to maintain the proper balance of nitrogen-containing compounds in the bloodstream.

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alpha toxins essentially poke holes in a host cell's membrane. hemolytic toxins are a type of alpha toxin. which type of hemolytic organism can breakdown both the red blood cells and the hemoglobin contained with in?

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Hemolytic toxins specifically target red blood cells, causing them to rupture and release their contents, including hemoglobin. One type of hemolytic organism that can break down both red blood cells and hemoglobin is the bacterium Streptococcus pyogenes.

S. pyogenes produces streptolysin O and streptolysin S, which are hemolytic toxins. These toxins act by forming pores in the cell membranes of red blood cells, leading to cell lysis and the release of hemoglobin.

Additionally, S. pyogenes produces an enzyme called streptokinase, which can activate plasminogen to form plasmin. Plasmin is an enzyme that can break down fibrin clots and has the ability to degrade hemoglobin.

By disrupting red blood cells and degrading hemoglobin, S. pyogenes can acquire essential nutrients, such as iron, for its growth and survival. This dual-action mechanism of S. pyogenes makes it a notable example of a hemolytic organism capable of breaking down both red blood cells and the hemoglobin contained within.

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How is damage to DNA bases recognized by the cellular machineries that repair them?

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There are several cellular machineries that are responsible for repairing the damage to DNA bases. These machineries have specific mechanisms to recognize the damaged DNA bases. The most common form of DNA damage is caused by oxidation, alkylation, or exposure to radiation. When these types of damage occur, it may cause abnormal chemical bonds and structural changes to the DNA molecule. One mechanism for recognizing this damage is through the process of base excision repair (BER), which is initiated by a glycosylase enzyme that recognizes and removes the damaged base from the sugar-phosphate backbone of the DNA. Another mechanism for recognizing DNA damage is through nucleotide excision repair (NER), which is triggered by bulky and helix-distorting DNA damage. The NER machinery identifies such damage and removes the affected DNA segment, which is then replaced with a new sequence. Ultimately, the recognition of DNA damage is based on the altered chemical structure of the DNA that results from the damage. The cellular machinery involved in DNA repair recognizes and responds to these altered structures in order to initiate the repair process.

during a squat, which muscle group isometrically contracts to prevent unnecessary thigh movement in the frontal plane?

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The hip abductor muscles isometrically contract to prevent unnecessary thigh movement in the frontal plane during a squat.

During a squat, the hip abductor muscles isometrically contract to prevent unnecessary thigh movement in the frontal plane.

These muscles include the gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, and tensor fasciae latae, which are located on the lateral side of the hip joint. These muscles work to stabilize the pelvis and prevent it from tilting toward the unsupported side, which could cause the knee to collapse inward and compromise the alignment of the lower body during the squat.By maintaining proper alignment, the hip abductor muscles help to distribute the load evenly across the lower body and reduce the risk of injury.

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trueAs allergens are very small particles and may remain suspended in air if aerosols are generated, every effort should be applied to contain them as close to their source point as possible by using filtered cages, biological safety cabinets, and other negative pressure filtered devices
TRUE

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The statement allergens are very small particles and may remain suspended in air if aerosols are generated, biological safety cabinets, and other negative pressure filtered devices  is true  Allergens are often very small particles that can easily become airborne and remain suspended in the air for extended periods of time.

This can make them difficult to control and can pose a significant risk to individuals who are sensitive to the allergen. To minimize the risk of exposure, it is important to use appropriate containment measures, such as filtered cages, biological safety cabinets, and negative pressure filtered devices.

These devices are designed to capture and contain the allergen as close to its source as possible, reducing the likelihood that it will become airborne and potentially cause harm.

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Name 6 principles used in the creation of preserves which have come out of a better understanding of the effects of fragmentation.

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The six principles used in the creation of preserves that have come out of a better understanding of the effects of fragmentation are as follows: Size and shape, Connectivity, Buffer zones, Habitat management, Monitoring, and Adaptive management.

1. Size and shape: The size and shape of the preserve should be determined by the size and shape of the natural habitat being preserved. This ensures that the preserve is large enough to support a viable population of species.

2. Connectivity: The preserve should be connected to other natural areas to allow for the movement of species between them. This helps to maintain genetic diversity and prevents inbreeding.

3. Buffer zones: Buffer zones should be established around the preserve to protect it from external threats such as pollution or development.

4. Habitat management: The habitat within the preserve should be managed to maintain or improve its quality, which helps to support a healthy population of species.

5. Monitoring: The preserve should be regularly monitored to ensure that it is meeting its conservation goals and to identify any issues that need to be addressed.

6. Adaptive management: The management of the preserve should be adaptive, meaning that it should be adjusted as new information becomes available. This ensures that the preserve continues to meet its conservation goals over time.

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What are some differences between a food chain, web, or energy pyramid?

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Food chains, webs, and energy pyramids are all methods used to represent the flow of energy and nutrients in an ecosystem. A food chain is a simple linear representation of the transfer of energy from one organism to another. It typically starts with a primary producer and ends with a top predator.

A food web, on the other hand, is a more complex representation of interconnected food chains. It shows the feeding relationships among many different species in an ecosystem.

Finally, an energy pyramid represents the amount of energy that flows through each level of a food chain or web. It is typically shaped like a pyramid because the amount of energy decreases as you move up the trophic levels.

Overall, food chains are simple and straightforward, while food webs and energy pyramids are more complex and show the interconnectivity of species and energy flow in an ecosystem.

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To make organic fertilizer by composting, you should not include ________.
A) crop residues
B) dead leaves, weeds
C) animal manures
D) shredded plastic and metals
E) wood chips

Answers

To make organic fertilizer by composting, you should not include Shredded plastic and metals.

What is fertilizer?

Fertilizer is a material that is added to soil to provide essential plant nutrients and improve crop yields. It is typically composed of macronutrients such as nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium, as well as other micronutrients that are beneficial to plant growth. Fertilizers can be organic or inorganic, and they are applied to the soil in a variety of ways. Organic fertilizers are derived from plant, animal, and mineral sources, while inorganic fertilizers are composed of chemical compounds. Fertilizers are essential for both agricultural and home gardening purposes, as they provide essential nutrients to crops and plants that are not naturally present in the soil. Fertilizers help to enrich the soil and promote healthy, vigorous plant growth.

Therefore, the correct option is A.
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What shape is the sheep's pupil? How does it compare to the shape of the human pupil?

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The pupil of a sheep has a horizontal shape, which describes it as being rectangular in appearance and lengthened horizontally.

It is believed that a sheep's pupil shape is a grazing behavior adaptation. Sheep are herbivores and spend a lot of time grazing on the ground, which necessitates good peripheral vision for predator detection. The horizontal shape of their pupil gives them a wider horizontal field of vision, which makes it easier for them to spot predators.

As predators with forward-facing eyes, humans need to have good binocular vision and depth perception. Our pupils rounded shape makes it easier for light to enter the eye and enables us to focus on objects at various distances.

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what does the corpus luteum degrade into in the case of no pregnancy?

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The corpus luteum is a temporary endocrine gland that forms in the ovary after ovulation.

Its primary function is to produce progesterone, a hormone that prepares the uterus for pregnancy. If fertilization and implantation of an embryo do not occur, the corpus luteum will eventually degrade or regress.

As the corpus luteum regresses, it undergoes a process called luteolysis. During this process, the cells of the corpus luteum begin to break down and the blood vessels that supply it begin to shrink. This leads to a decrease in progesterone production.

Ultimately, the corpus luteum will degenerate into a small scar-like structure called the corpus albicans, which is composed of fibrous tissue. The corpus albicans has no endocrine function and remains in the ovary indefinitely. It is a normal part of the ovarian cycle and is typically reabsorbed by the body over time.

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During covalent modification, smaller chemical groups can also be added. For example, proteins can be:

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During covalent modification, smaller chemical groups can also be added to proteins. For example, proteins can be phosphorylated, which involves the addition of a phosphate group to a specific amino acid residue.

This covalent modification can alter the function and activity of the protein, affecting various cellular processes. Other examples of covalent modifications include acetylation, methylation, and ubiquitination, which also involve the addition of small chemical groups to specific amino acids in proteins. These modifications play important roles in regulating protein activity, stability, and localization within cells. The phosphate group serves as the switch to promote and induce protein interaction which further activates transduction signals to transmit the transit signals.

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Aerobic organisms have the enzyme catalase to deal with toxic forms of:

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Aerobic organisms have the enzyme catalase to breakdown hydrogen peroxide.

There are various enzymes that break down toxic forms of oxygen; catalase is one of them. Hydrogen peroxide is broken down by this enzyme into water and molecule oxygen.

All aerobic organisms include the antioxidant enzyme catalase. In cells subjected to environmental stress, it is known to catalyse H2O2 into water and oxygen in an energy-efficient manner.

Superoxide dismutase, an antioxidant present in foods, produces H2O2, which catalase eliminates. Catalase and glucose oxidase are used in some food preservation processes. In some foods, catalase and glucose oxidase are frequently combined for preservation.

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If an impulse is traveling from a sense receptor toward the spinal cord, it is traveling along what type of neuron?

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An impulse traveling from a sense receptor toward the spinal cord is traveling along an afferent neuron.

An afferent neuron is also known as a sensory neuron, and is responsible for carrying nerve impulses from sense receptors to the central nervous system. The central nervous system then processes the information and sends out signals to the muscles and glands to produce an appropriate response.

In the case of the impulse traveling from a sense receptor to the spinal cord, the afferent neuron transmits the impulses from the sense receptors, such as the eyes, ears, nose, or skin, to the spinal cord. Once the information reaches the spinal cord, it is then sent to the brain where it is further processed and a response is produced.

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Describe data that indicates significant ecological effects of global warning on animal reproduction.

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Global warming is affecting animal reproduction through changes in breeding patterns, population decline in cold-adapted species, and skewed sex ratios. These impacts have significant implications for the health and stability of ecosystems and biodiversity worldwide.

Global warming has significant ecological effects on animal reproduction, as observed through various data sets. One such effect is the alteration of breeding patterns, with many species breeding earlier due to warmer temperatures. For instance, studies on amphibians, such as frogs and salamanders, have shown a shift in breeding season by up to 2.3 days per decade.

Another impact is the decline in population sizes of cold-adapted species like the Adélie penguin. Research indicates that a decrease in sea ice has led to a reduction in their main food source, krill, subsequently affecting the penguins' reproductive success.

Furthermore, increased temperatures can lead to skewed sex ratios in species with temperature-dependent sex determination, such as sea turtles. Studies reveal that warmer incubation temperatures produce more female hatchlings, potentially causing long-term consequences on population stability.

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The genes for what type of sugar metabolism are constituitively expressed?

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The GAL genes of sugar metabolism remain constitutively expressed.

The GAL genes are involved in the utilization of sugar. These genes are in charge of the oxidation of galactose, a molecule comparable to glucose. Certain yeast strains express the GAL pathway constitutively. Three Leloir genes' enzyme products operate sequentially to turn galactose and glucose-6-phosphate, which enter glycolysis.

This process is critical for cell energy production. Sugar metabolism is a mechanism through which sugars are broken down and converted into energy in cellular. The galactose metabolic (GAL) gene is a major player in sugar metabolism. GAL genes are expressed intrinsically and play an important role in galactose to glucose-6-phosphate conversion for generating electricity in cells.

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Describe the lactiferous duct and the role of lactiferous sinuses

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The lactiferous duct is a specialized duct system that is responsible for transporting milk from the mammary glands to the nipple during breastfeeding.

The lactiferous ducts originate from the alveoli, which are small, sac-like structures where milk is produced and secreted by the mammary gland. The lactiferous ducts are lined with columnar epithelial cells that are specialized to secrete and transport milk. The ducts are surrounded by a layer of myoepithelial cells, which contract to help propel milk through the ducts and towards the nipple during breastfeeding.

The lactiferous ducts converge and become larger as they approach the nipple, ultimately forming the lactiferous sinuses. Lactiferous sinuses are small reservoirs located in the nipple that store milk before it is released during breastfeeding. These sinuses are lined with specialized cells that secrete a lubricating fluid to help facilitate the flow of milk.

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during the Jurassic period the ancestor to all mammals was...

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During the Jurassic period, the ancestor to all mammals was a group of small, shrew-like creatures called the mammaliaforms.

Where are mammals descended from?

All mammals descended from a group of tiny, shrew-like organisms known as mammaliaforms during the Jurassic period. Although these creatures were relatively little and unnoticeable, they possessed certain crucial traits that would later be enhanced and developed by genuine mammals, such as hair, mammary glands, and the capacity to control their internal body temperature.

These early mammaliaforms developed into a variety of species over time, some of which are now among the biggest and most diversified animals on Earth.

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What are the effects of hypoxia on energy metabolism? In hypoxia:A.the citric acid cycle is induced to produce more NADH.B.lactic fermentation is induced to regenerate NAD+.C.the electron transport chain is induced to consume more NADH.D.glycogenesis is induced to regenerate NAD+.passage:

Answers

In hypoxia, lactic fermentation is induced to regenerate NAD+. This is because hypoxia, or a low-oxygen environment, can lead to a decrease in the availability of oxygen.

Without oxygen, the electron transport cycle can not  produce ATP effectively, and NADH buildup might  hamper other cellular functions.   Cells will convert to anaerobic metabolism to maintain ATP  conflation under these conditions, which entails the breakdown of glucose to pyruvate and eventually to lactate, with the  rejuvenescence of NAD as a consequence.

This process, known as lactic  turmoil, generates some ATP without the need of oxygen or the electron transport chain. still, this medium is less effective than oxidative phosphorylation and can affect in lactate buildup, which can induce cellular acidification and, if sustained, cell damage or death.

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What kind of trait is illustrated in the diagram?



A.
Autosomal dominant

B.
Autosomal recessive

C.
Sex-linked recessive

D.
Sex-linked dominant

Answers

The illustration depicts an autosomal recessive feature. Option C is correct.

Which inheritance style is depicted in the pedigree?

An allele's mode of inheritance, such as whether it is dominant, recessive, autosomal, or sex-linked, can be determined using information from a pedigree. Children inherit the autosomal dominant traits of one parent. Autosomal recessive traits are transmitted to the children by both parents.

How can a pedigree determine whether a trait is autosomal dominant or recessive?

One way to spot a recessive trait is to look for one that skips a generation in a pedigree (however a trait might still be autosomal recessive and not skip generations). Both sexes share the same prevalence of these traits.

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In most terrestrial mammalian species, parental investment is greater for female parents than for male parents. This is because:

Answers

The greater parental investment by female parents in most terrestrial mammalian species can be attributed to a combination of physical demands, reproductive potential, and parental certainty.

The greater parental investment by female parents in most terrestrial mammalian species can be attributed to several factors, including the physical demands of pregnancy and lactation, as well as the differences in reproductive potential and parental certainty between males and females.

Female mammals carry and nourish their offspring during pregnancy, which is a significant physiological investment. Additionally, lactation requires a significant amount of energy and time from the mother to ensure the survival and growth of her offspring. These demands often limit a female's ability to reproduce as frequently as males.

Furthermore, in many mammalian species, males have the ability to mate with multiple females and sire numerous offspring, while females are typically limited in the number of offspring they can produce due to the time and energy required for gestation and lactation. As a result, females often have a greater investment in each offspring, as their reproductive success is more dependent on the survival and well-being of each individual offspring.

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The War Hawks believed the United States' war with Britain would ultimately serve as a way toA. strengthen economic ties with France.B. provide incentive for Americans to settle in Canada.C. create a powerful new alliance with American Indians.D. restore national honor with a military victory. Which bomb category is not suitable for target penetration? a nurse is planning discharge for a client who had right-sided weakness from a stroke. during the hospitalization, the client received physical, occupational, and speech therapy daily. the family voices concern about rehabilitation after discharge. how should the nurse intervene? Y=2X squared -12 X +20 for quadratic formula when planning his narrative essay noam include a session about how his experience affected him for a pregnant woman, cardiopulmonary resuscitation requires which adjustment? a. place defibrillator pads one rib interspace lower than usual. b. perform compressions slightly lower on the maternal sternum. c. manually displace the uterus laterally. d. begin vasopressors as soon as possible. Two land degradation problems that can result from over-irrigation include: i. overgrazing, ii. salinization, iii. increased crop yields, iv. water logging. there are 40 students in ms. vitales wednesday night aerobics class of the 40 students 30% are african american 45% are caucasian and the rest are hispanic how many of the students in the aerobics class are hispanic if a cannonball is shot off a cliff with a certain initial velocity in the x direction, the two-dimensional motion that results is known as projectile motion. But will it continue to move forward in that direction at the same velocity and at the same time fall in the y direction as a result of the gravitational attraction between the Earth and the ball? When two long parallel wires carry equal currents, the magnitude of the magnetic force that one wire exerts on the other is F. If the current in both wires is now doubled, what is the magnitude of the new magnetic force on each wire? A) 8F B) 4F C) 2F D) F (no change) Calcium hydroxide has a Ksp of 4. 68 x10-6. a. How many moles of calcium hydroxide will dissolve in 1 L of pure water (its molar solubility)?b. At most, how many moles of calcium hydroxide will dissolve in 1 L of 3. 25 M NaOH solution?c. What minimum concentration of sodium hydroxide is needed to precipitate calcium from a 0. 015 M solution of calcium chloride? Do intussusceptions, torsions and epiploic herniation occur? Where is among the Sierra Nevada mountains California? Explain why the addition of 0.100 M NaOH to 0.100 M HNO can result in the formation of a buffer solution. Include the net ionic equation for the reaction that occurs when the student adds NaOH to the HNO. What is the population in Canada likely to experience soon?A) exponential population growthB) government institution of a population control policyC) more senior citizensD) more single malesE) resource depletion and decreased quality of life does the constrictor pupillae constrict under sympathetic or parasympathetic stimulation? what is auscultatory sites for the heart: pulmonic PLEASE HURRY!! Which fact, left out of this account, most clearly suggests that the account is biased? Does anyone know the answers of the gizmo called "student exploration: weathering gizmo"? I need help with activity C. (weathering rates) Organizations that have specific policies about where they wish to position themselves in the labor market use a/an ____ strategy.industryquartilebenchmarkinglabor market