The systolic blood pressure of 18-year-old women is normally distributed with a mean of 115 mmHg and a standard deviation of 10 mmHg. What percentage of 18-year-old women have a systolic blood pressure between 96 mmHg and 140 mmHg?

Answers

Answer 1

96.51%  percentage of 18-year-old women have a systolic blood pressure between 96 mmHg and 140 mmHg.

We can use the z-score formula to convert the given values into z-scores and then use a standard normal distribution table to find the required percentage. The z-scores for the given values are:

[tex]Z_{1}[/tex] = (96 - 115) / 10 = -1.9

[tex]Z_{2}[/tex] = (140 - 115) / 10 = 2.5

Using the standard normal distribution table, the area to the left of z1 is 0.0287 and the area to the left of z2 is 0.9938. Therefore, the area between z1 and z2 (i.e., the percentage of 18-year-old women with systolic blood pressure between 96 mmHg and 140 mmHg) is:

0.9938 - 0.0287 = 0.9651 or 96.51%

Therefore, approximately 96.51% of 18-year-old women have a systolic blood pressure between 96 mmHg and 140 mmHg.

Learn more about systolic blood pressure   here:

https://brainly.com/question/14507800

#SPJ4


Related Questions

true or false: the ability of a microbe to evade the first and second lines of immune defense is critical to the microbe's ability to cause disease.

Answers

Answer:

True

Explanation:

The immune system is the body's defense mechanism against infections by microbes such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. The immune system has two lines of defense. The first line of defense include physical, chemical, and biological barriers that prevent microbes from entering the body. The second line of defense includes innate immune responses such as inflammation, fever, and activation of immune cells.

which of the following is true? a. some codons in a gene code for more than one single amino acid b. every codon codes for an amino acid. c. every amino acid is coded for by a single codon d. there are more codons than there are amino acids.

Answers

The correct answer among all the options is B) Every codon codes for an amino acid.

A codon is a sequence of three nucleotides that encode for a specific amino acid.

There are 64 possible codons, but only 20 amino acids are commonly found in proteins. This means that multiple codons can code for the same amino acid.

For example, the amino acid leucine can be encoded by six different codons. However, each codon only codes for a single amino acid.

This is due to the genetic code, which is a set of rules that determines how nucleotide triplets are translated into the 20 amino acids that make up proteins.

The genetic code is nearly universal, meaning that the same codons code for the same amino acids in almost all living organisms.

In summary, every codon codes for an amino acid, but some amino acids can be encoded by multiple codons. Hence, the correct option is B, every codon codes for an amino acid.

For more such answers on codons

https://brainly.com/question/26929548

#SPJ11

why do chemical reactions in the body require enzymes? match the words in the left column to the appropriate blanks in the sentence on the righn any reaction catalyzed by an enzyme, the reacting molecule is called the isozyme. substrate. allostere. cofactor. coenzyme.

Answers

In any reaction catalyzed by an enzyme, the reacting molecule is called the: substrate.

Chemical reactions in the body require enzymes because enzymes act as biological catalysts, which speed up the rate of these reactions.

Enzymes lower the activation energy needed for a reaction to occur, allowing the reactions to proceed more efficiently and at a faster rate. This is essential for maintaining the proper functioning of various metabolic processes within the body.

In an enzyme-catalyzed reaction, the reacting molecule is called the substrate. The substrate binds to the enzyme's active site, forming an enzyme-substrate complex.

The enzyme then facilitates the conversion of the substrate into products, which are released from the active site, allowing the enzyme to be reused for further reactions.

To know more about "Substrate" refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/22428921#

#SPJ11

How long can a postpartum service member fully qualified for reenlistment/extend for if weight is outside of Navy limits?

Answers

A postpartum service member who is fully qualified for reenlistment or extension but exceeds Navy weight limits may have up to 12 months from the date of delivery to meet weight standards before being separated from the Navy.

The Navy has specific weight standards that service members must meet in order to maintain good health and readiness. These standards take into account factors such as height, age, and gender. However, postpartum service members are given additional time to meet these standards after giving birth.

If a postpartum service member is fully qualified for reenlistment or extension but exceeds Navy weight limits, they will be given up to 12 months from the date of delivery to meet the weight standards.

If they are unable to meet the standards within that time frame, they may be separated from the Navy. It is important for service members to prioritize their health and fitness to maintain readiness and meet the standards necessary to continue serving in the Navy.

To know more about postpartum, refer here:
https://brainly.com/question/28270938#
#SPJ11

How do ciliary bodies (muscles) help you see?

Answers

Answer:

Aqueous humor, often known as eye fluid, is created by the ciliary body. Also, it houses the ciliary muscle, which changes the lens' shape when your eyes focus on a close object. This method is known as accommodation.

Explanation:

The ciliary fibers that attach to the crystalline lens' envelope become looser as the ciliary muscles flex. The lens relaxes into a more curved form since it is flexible, boosting its refractive power to allow for closer vision.

In an ideal intercuspal position, the cusp tip of a permanent maxillary canine should contact.
a. the mandibular lateral incisor only
b. no other tooth
c. the mandibular canine only
d. the mandibular first premolar only
e. both mandibular canine and first premolar

Answers

Answer:  b. no other tooth

Explanation:

a living organism that possesses a novel combination of genetic material obtained through the use of modern biotechnology

Answers

A living organism that possesses a novel combination of genetic material obtained through the use of modern biotechnology refers to a genetically modified organism (GMO).  GMO has been engineered to exhibit new traits or characteristics that can be beneficial for various purposes, such as increased crop yields or improved resistance to environmental stressors.

The process goes as follows:

1. Living organism: This refers to any organism that exhibits the characteristics of life, such as growth, reproduction, and metabolism. Examples include plants, animals, and microorganisms.

2. Novel combination: This implies the introduction of new or unique genetic traits that were not previously present in the organism's natural genetic makeup.

3. Genetic material: This refers to the DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) of an organism, which carries the instructions for the development, functioning, and reproduction of the organism.

4. Modern biotechnology: This involves the use of advanced scientific techniques and technologies to manipulate an organism's genetic material. Examples of modern biotechnology techniques include gene editing, gene cloning, and recombinant DNA technology.

To create a GMO, scientists use modern biotechnology techniques to insert specific genes from one organism into the DNA of another organism. This results in a novel combination of genetic material, which provides the GMO with new traits or characteristics that were not previously present. For example, a crop plant might be genetically modified to be resistant to certain pests or to tolerate specific herbicides.

Learn more about genetic traits here:

brainly.com/question/2655226

#SPJ11

The process in the hydrologic cycle in which water vapor is released from leaves into the atmosphere is calledinfiltrationtranspirationsublimationreflectionpercolation

Answers

the Transpiration is the hydrologic cycle mechanism by which water vapour from leaves is discharged into the atmosphere.

What is the term for transpiration?

'Transpiration' refers to the mechanism through which plants expel extra water through stomata on the surface of leaves. Water from plant leaves evaporates mostly through transpiration. Tomata, a tiny hole on leaves, aid in the passage of water out of the plant.

Describe the process of transpiration.

The physiological loss of water in the form of water vapour, primarily from the stomata in leaves, but also by evaporation from the surfaces of leaves, flowers, and stems, is known as transpiration.

To know more about Transpiration visit:-

https://brainly.com/question/14874069

#SPJ1

what direction does the negative end of a microtubule point?

Answers

The negative end of a microtubule point towards the centrosome.

The centrosome serves as an anchor for the minus ends of microtubules. The centrosome is situated close to the nucleus and microtubules reach the cell's edge in interphase cells.

Microtubules have a role in the movement of organelles inside cells as well as in giving cells structural support. When the microtubules are positioned correctly, they aid in the orientation of the core complex by directing some of the proteins that make up this complex in a particular direction.

The minus end of every microtubule is the one with exposed alpha-tubulins. In an animal cell, the minus end, which is made up of exposed beta-units, is pushed out towards the cell's surface, and the centriole-containing centrosome is where this end is located.

Learn more about negative end of a microtubule:

https://brainly.com/question/31590947

#SPJ4

According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, the __________ dichotomy measures how individuals orient themselves to the external world.

Answers

Answer:

Judging-Percieving.

Explanation:

According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, the Judging-Percieving dichotomy measures how individuals orient themselves to the external world.

Pregnant servicewomen shall be exempt from standing at parade rest or attention for longer than how many minutes

Answers

The following restrictions do not apply to pregnant servicewomen: (a) Remaining at march rest at attention for more than 15 minutes.

Up to delivery, warriors can continue to serve in the military by working shifts. The healthcare professional may modify the soldier's duties for those with problematic pregnancies. Free from marching rest or standing at attention for more than 15 minutes at 20 weeks of pregnancy.

Your branch may grant you up to 12 weeks of maternity leave, and your secondary caregivers (typically a spouse) may also be granted time off. You are also given a special uniform. Eight weeks of prenatal leave are included in this. A woman is entitled to a full year of pregnancy leave if the kid they adopted is under three months old.

Learn more about pregnant visit: brainly.com/question/28547022#

#SPJ4

Since oxidative phosphorylation no longer occurs when oxygen is not available, predict what would happen to the supply of NAD+ in the cell if only glycolysis were occurring?

Answers

When oxygen is not available, oxidative phosphorylation cannot occur, and the electron transport chain (ETC) cannot function properly.

Glucose is broken down into pyruvate during glycolysis, producing a net of two ATP  motes and two NADH  motes for every glucose  patch metabolised. NADH is an electron carrier that provides electrons to the electron transport chain and is oxidised back to NAD.    still, in the absence of oxygen, the electron transport chain is  unfit to admit electrons from NADH, performing in a reduction in NAD  situations.

As a result, in order for glycolysis to  do, the cell must renew NAD. This can be when pyruvate is converted to lactate or ethanol, which regenerates NAD by transferring electrons from NADH to pyruvate. This is known as  turmoil.   As a result, in the lack of oxygen, the cell would have to calculate on  turmoil to survive.

Learn more about glycolysis at

https://brainly.com/question/28147740

#SPJ4

most peptide and amino acid derivative hormones end in ______ while most steroid hormones end in _________.

Answers

Most peptide and amino acid derivative hormones end in "-in" or "-ine", while most steroid hormones end in "-ol" or "-one".

Peptide and amino acid derivative hormones are typically composed of chains of amino acids, and include hormones such as insulin, glucagon, adrenaline, and thyroxine.

These hormones often have names that end in "-in" or "-ine", such as insulin, glucagon, epinephrine, and thyroxine. Steroid hormones, on the other hand, are derived from cholesterol and include hormones such as testosterone, estrogen, and cortisol.

To know more about peptide here

https://brainly.com/question/11559138

#SPJ4

H+ ions for chloroplast chemiosmosis accumulate in the _____

Answers

The accumulation of H+ ions for chloroplast chemiosmosis occurs in the thylakoid space. During the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis, H+ ions are pumped from the stroma (the fluid-filled region of the chloroplast) into the thylakoid space.

This process is facilitated by the activity of electron transport chains, which transfer electrons from water to NADP+ to produce NADPH. As H+ ions accumulate in the thylakoid space, they create an electrochemical gradient, with a higher concentration of H+ ions in the thylakoid space compared to the stroma. The electrochemical gradient established by the accumulation of H+ ions in the thylakoid space drives the production of ATP through chemiosmosis. ATP synthase, an enzyme located in the thylakoid membrane, uses the flow of H+ ions down their electrochemical gradient to generate ATP from ADP and Pi. The H+ ions are then re-circulated back to the stroma through the ATP synthase channel, completing the chemiosmotic cycle. Overall, the accumulation of H+ ions in the thylakoid space is a critical step in the process of photosynthesis, allowing for the efficient production of ATP and NADPH.

To know more about chloroplast chemiosmosis:

https://brainly.com/question/13941048?referrer=searchResults

#SPJ11

what do the ovaries do in response to HCG?

Answers

The ovaries respond to HCG (human chorionic gonadotropin) by producing more progesterone. This hormone helps support the growth and development of the fertilized egg and maintains the lining of the uterus.

Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is a hormone produced by the placenta during pregnancy. It plays a critical role in maintaining the pregnancy by supporting the growth and development of the embryo and fetus. hCG also stimulates the production of other hormones, such as estrogen and progesterone, which are important for maintaining pregnancy. In women, hCG can also stimulate the ovaries to produce more estrogen and progesterone, which can help prepare the uterus for the implantation of a fertilized egg.

Learn more about human chorionic gonadotropin: https://brainly.com/question/12978175

#SPJ11

Which one of the following pesticides can be absorbed by the plant and translocated within the plant?
A. Systemic pesticide
B. Contact pesticide
C. Absorptive pesticide
D. Volatile pesticide

Answers

The pesticides that can be absorbed by the plant and translocated within the plant is: Systemic pesticide. The correct option is (A).

A systemic pesticide is designed to be absorbed by the plant and translocated within the plant, allowing it to provide protection from the inside out.

This is in contrast to contact pesticides, which only affect pests upon direct contact, absorptive pesticides that may not be translocated, and volatile pesticides that evaporate quickly and do not have long-lasting effects on the plant.

However, there is concern about the potential health and environmental risks associated with systemic pesticides, as they can also affect non-target organisms and accumulate in the environment.

It is important to carefully consider the risks and benefits of using systemic pesticides and to follow proper application and disposal procedures to minimize negative impacts.

Additionally, integrated pest management practices that incorporate multiple methods of pest control, including biological and cultural control methods, can help reduce reliance on pesticides in agriculture.

To know more about "Pesticides" refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/1386090#

#SPJ11

What are the features of non-bacterial thrombotic endocarditis

Answers

A rare disorder called as marantic endocarditis or non-bacterial thrombotic endocarditis (NBTE) causes sterile vegetations to grow on the heart's valves.

Unlike infective endocarditis, which is caused by bacterial infection, NBTE is not associated with an infectious agent. The vegetations in NBTE are typically small and located on the valve leaflets, rather than the valve ring. NBTE is often associated with an underlying hypercoagulable state, such as cancer, autoimmune disorders, or chronic infections.

Patients with NBTE may present with symptoms related to the underlying condition, such as weight loss or fever, or with symptoms related to valvular dysfunction, such as heart failure or embolic events.

Learn more about endocarditis

https://brainly.com/question/28238660

#SPJ4

What is the etiology of Impaired Gas Exchange related to?

Answers

The etiology of Impaired Gas Exchange is related to various factors that hinder the proper exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the alveoli in the lungs and the blood vessels.

These factors can include respiratory illnesses, such as pneumonia or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), impaired lung function due to injury, environmental factors like exposure to harmful substances, or conditions affecting blood flow or oxygen transport, such as anemia or heart failure.

It is important to identify and address the underlying cause in order to improve gas exchange and overall respiratory function. The underlying cause of Impaired Gas Exchange needs to be identified and treated appropriately to improve oxygenation and prevent complications.

To know more about "Impaired Gas Exchange" refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/30642085#

#SPJ11

How is rDNA made?Examples of how other restriction enzymes cleave DNA:

Answers

The ability to cleave rDNA molecules at particular DNA sequences is a characteristic of restriction enzymes. Using restriction enzymes, DNA sequences are sliced at specified nucleotide locations. To create recombinant DNA, some foreign genes are put into plasmids.

A restriction Example for enzyme functions via shape-to-shape matching, just like all other enzymes. The enzyme wraps around the DNA and breaks both of the DNA strands when it comes into contact with a DNA sequence that has a shape that matches a recognition site on the enzyme.

One of the best resources available to molecular biology researchers is the Type II restriction enzymes. These enzymes can cleave at or very near the recognition sites of short DNA sequences (4–8 nucleotides) (1,2).

Learn more about rDNA visit: brainly.com/question/16979627

#SPJ4

: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension)

34) Angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II by enzymes primarily located in the
A) kidneys.
B) liver.
C) heart.
D) lungs.
E) blood vessels.

Answers

Angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II by enzymes primarily located in the lungs. The correct option is D.

The pulmonary capillaries, which are tiny blood vessels in the lungs that help with gas exchange between the air sacs and blood, contain high concentrations of the enzyme ACE. Angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor that raises blood pressure, is created when ACE transforms angiotensin I, a precursor molecule, through these blood vessels.

Aldosterone, a hormone made by the adrenal cortex that aids in controlling electrolyte balance and blood pressure, is also stimulated by angiotensin II. Other effects of angiotensin II include enabling blood vessel constriction, increasing sodium and water absorption in the kidneys, and promoting the release of antidiuretic hormone  to retain water. The correct option is D.

Learn more about pulmonary capillaries at:

brainly.com/question/9490582

#SPJ4

the gpp of a forest ecosystem is 120 units per year and the npp is 80 units. what is the respiration rate of primary producers in the forest?

Answers

The respiration rate of primary producers in the forest is 40 units per year. This means that out of the 120 units of organic matter produced by photosynthesis, 40 units are used by primary producers for their own respiration, leaving 80 units available as net primary productivity to support the rest of the ecosystem.

The Gross Primary Productivity (GPP) of an ecosystem is the total amount of organic matter that is produced by photosynthesis, while the Net Primary Productivity (NPP) is the amount of organic matter that remains after subtracting the energy used by primary producers for respiration.

To calculate the respiration rate of primary producers in the forest, we can use the following equation:

Respiration = GPP - NPP

Substituting the given values, we get:

Respiration =[tex]120 - 80[/tex]

Respiration = 40 units per year

for such more questions on  Gross Primary Productivity

https://brainly.com/question/29187194

#SPJ11

Elongation (2nd step of Prokaryotic Translation)

Answers

Elongation (2nd step of Prokaryotic Translation) the procedure by which a protein is created using the genetic information encoded in mRNA.

The ribosome moves along the mRNA molecule during elongation, reading the codons and incorporating amino acids into the lengthening polypeptide chain.

The binding of aminoacyl-tRNA, formation of peptide bonds, and translocation are the three main steps in the elongation process. Up until the ribosome reaches a stop codon, which indicates the conclusion of the protein-coding sequence, this process is repeated repeatedly.

The ribosome then releases the freshly created protein and separates, liberating the mRNA and tRNA molecules for use in subsequent translation cycles.

Learn more about ribosome at:

brainly.com/question/241631

#SPJ4

Large amounts of protein are found in the urine of a patient. Based on this information, which portion of the nephron is most likely malfunctioning?A.Collecting ductB.Distal tubuleC.GlomerulusD.Loop of Henle

Answers

Large amounts of protein in the urine of a patient is a condition known as proteinuria, and it can be an indication of a malfunction in the glomerulus of the nephron. The Correct option is C

The glomerulus is responsible for filtering blood and separating waste products from useful substances that need to be reabsorbed by the body. When the glomerulus is damaged or inflamed, it can allow protein molecules to pass through into the urine.

The distal tubule, loop of Henle, and collecting ducts do not typically play a role in the development of proteinuria, although their malfunction can lead to other types of urinary issues.

Learn more about  glomerulus

https://brainly.com/question/30466548

#SPJ4

analyze the following statements to identify which techniques have similarities to scanning electron microscopy (sem) for the reason given. choose one or more: a. sem and the gram stain technique both use multiple treatments with stains, washes, and mordants to view specimen. b. sem and differential interference contrast microscopy both provide a 3d image of the cell surface. c. sem and transmission electron microscopy use the same illumination source. d. sem and differential staining both only use one stain.

Answers

The techniques that have similarities to scanning electron microscopy (SEM) for the reasons given are:
- SEM and differential interference contrast microscopy both provide a 3D image of the cell surface (statement b).
- SEM and transmission electron microscopy use the same illumination source (statement c).

Hi, I'd be happy to help you analyze the given statements to identify which techniques have similarities to scanning electron microscopy (SEM) for the reason provided.

a. SEM and the Gram stain technique both use multiple treatments with stains, washes, and mordants to view the specimen.
- This statement is incorrect. SEM does not use stains, washes, or mordants; instead, it uses a focused beam of electrons to create an image.

b. SEM and differential interference contrast microscopy both provide a 3D image of the cell surface.
- This statement is correct. Both SEM and differential interference contrast microscopy generate 3D images of the cell surface, allowing for the examination of surface details.

c. SEM and transmission electron microscopy use the same illumination source.
- This statement is correct. Both SEM and transmission electron microscopy (TEM) utilize a beam of electrons as the illumination source to produce high-resolution images of the specimen.

d. SEM and differential staining both only use one stain.
- This statement is incorrect. SEM does not use stains; it relies on electron beams. Differential staining typically involves the use of multiple stains to differentiate between various structures or cell types.

In conclusion, the techniques that have similarities to scanning electron microscopy (SEM) for the reasons given are:
- SEM and differential interference contrast microscopy both provide a 3D image of the cell surface (statement b).
- SEM and transmission electron microscopy use the same illumination source (statement c).

To know more about scanning electron microscopy refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/30602901

#SPJ11

the Calvin cycle is sometimes referred to as the _____ because it does not use light energy directly

Answers

The Calvin cycle is sometimes referred to as the light-independent reactions or the dark reactions because it does not use light energy directly.

It uses the energy stored in ATP and the reducing power of NADPH (both produced during the light-dependent reactions) to drive the carbon fixation and sugar synthesis processes in the stroma of the chloroplasts. The Calvin cycle involves a series of biochemical reactions that convert carbon dioxide into glucose and other organic molecules, which are used by the plant for growth and metabolism. While the Calvin cycle is not directly dependent on light, it cannot occur without the energy and reducing power generated by the light-dependent reactions.

Learn more about “ light-independent reactions “ visit here;

https://brainly.com/question/11240542

#SPJ4

parasympathetic signals to the heart will ______ (slow/ speed up) the heart rate. these are delivered by what nerve?

Answers

Parasympathetic signals to the heart will slow down the heart rate. These signals are delivered by the vagus nerve, which is also known as the tenth cranial nerve.

What affects heart rate does the parasympathetic nervous system have?

Heart rate is accelerated by the sympathetic nervous system while it is decreased by the parasympathetic nervous system. Electrocardiography (ECG) can be used to analyse heart rate variability (HRV).

Which nerve regulates heart rate?

The vagus nerve, the longest of the 12 cranial nerves, runs on each side of the body from the brainstem through the chest to the abdomen. It performs as a component of the body's involuntary nervous system, which manages unconscious bodily tasks such controlling respiration, heart beat, and food digestion.

To know more about Parasympathetic visit:-

https://brainly.com/question/14929483

#SPJ1

Is nature (DNA) more important than nurture (home environment) in determining whether a person will be successful or not. Defend your answer

Answers

Nature (DNA) and nurture (home environment) both play significant roles in determining a person's success, and neither one can be considered more important than the other.

While a person's genetic makeup (nature) can influence certain traits such as intelligence, temperament, and physical abilities, it is the environment (nurture) that can shape and develop these traits into successful outcomes. Factors such as access to education, socio-economic status, family support, and cultural influences can all play a crucial role in determining a person's success.

Ultimately, both nature and nurture work together in a complex interplay to influence a person's success, and it is important to consider both factors when trying to understand and support individual development.

To know more about DNA, here

brainly.com/question/264225

#SPJ4

in a certain fish, fin rays (supporting structures for the fins) can be either bony or soft in adult fish. sex linkage in a fish is similar to that in humans. what evidence would most strongly support the idea that the ray locus is on the x chromosome?

Answers

The evidence that would most strongly support the idea that the ray locus (the gene responsible for determining whether fin rays are bony or soft) is on the X chromosome would be:

1. Observe the inheritance pattern of the trait (bony or soft fin rays) in multiple generations of fish.

2. Notice a pattern where the trait appears more frequently in one sex than the other. For example, if bony fin rays are mostly observed in female fish while soft fin rays are more common in male fish, this would suggest a potential X-linked inheritance pattern.

3. Conduct controlled breeding experiments with fish having known genotypes for the fin ray trait. For example, cross a male with soft fin rays and a female with bony fin rays, and observe the resulting offspring's fin ray traits.

4. Analyze the inheritance pattern in the offspring. If the fin ray trait shows a pattern consistent with X-linked inheritance, this would provide strong evidence that the ray locus is on the X chromosome.

Specifically, all female offspring would have bony fin rays (inheriting the X chromosome with the bony trait from their mother), while all male offspring would have soft fin rays (inheriting the X chromosome with the soft trait from their mother and the Y chromosome from their father).

By following these steps and observing consistent patterns of inheritance across multiple generations and breeding experiments, you could gather strong evidence that the ray locus is on the X chromosome in this fish species.

To know more about "Genotypes" refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/16668988#

#SPJ11

which molecule in signaling is not considered a second messenger? a. calcium b. gtp c. inositol 1,4,5-triphosphate d. cyclic amp

Answers

The correct option is (B). GTP (guanosine triphosphate) is not considered a second messenger in signaling.

The molecule in signaling that is not considered a second messenger among the given options is: (b.)GTP
A second messenger is a molecule that relays signals received by cell surface receptors to target molecules inside the cell. In the given options, calcium (a), inositol 1,4,5-triphosphate (c), and cyclic AMP (d) are all considered second messengers. However, GTP (guanosine triphosphate) is not a second messenger; instead, it is a nucleotide that provides energy and plays a role in signal transduction as a substrate for G-proteins, but it does not act as a second messenger itself.

A second messenger is a signaling molecule that is produced inside a cell in response to an extracellular signal, such as a hormone or neurotransmitter binding to a receptor on the cell surface. Second messengers relay the signal from the receptor to downstream signaling pathways, ultimately leading to a cellular response.

Examples of second messengers include cyclic AMP (cAMP), inositol triphosphate (IP3), and diacylglycerol (DAG). These molecules are produced in response to the binding of extracellular ligands to G protein-coupled receptors or receptor tyrosine kinases, which are transmembrane proteins that activate intracellular signaling pathways.

Once produced, second messengers diffuse through the cytoplasm and bind to specific target proteins, such as protein kinases or ion channels, to initiate downstream signaling events. Second messengers can also act on other second messengers, amplifying the initial signal and leading to a more robust cellular response.

For more such questions on  second messenger , Visit:

https://brainly.com/question/13910720

#SPJ11

average cardiac output, HR, and SV for endurance trained and untrained men during maximal activity

Answers

Endurance-trained men typically have higher cardiac output, lower heart rate, and greater stroke volume compared to untrained men during maximal activity.

1. Cardiac Output (CO): Endurance-trained men have an average CO of 25-35 L/min, while untrained men have an average CO of 20-25 L/min during maximal activity.
2. Heart Rate (HR): Endurance-trained men have a lower average HR of around 180-200 bpm, while untrained men have an average HR of 200-220 bpm during maximal activity.
3. Stroke Volume (SV): Endurance-trained men have a greater average SV of 100-120 ml/beat, while untrained men have an average SV of 70-90 ml/beat during maximal activity.

These differences result from physiological adaptations due to endurance training, such as a larger and stronger heart, which allows for more efficient blood circulation during exercise.

To know more about "Endurance" refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/9392521#

#SPJ11

Other Questions
Draw a model below of how energy from the sun reaches Earth. Make sure to include nuclear fusion, where it occurs in the sun, and the type of energy that reaches Earth. In regression, the equation that describes how the response variable (y) is related to the explanatory variable (x) is: a. the correlation model b. the regression model c. used to compute the correlation coefficient d. None of these alternatives is correct. True or False: During the first year of life the child begin to develop a sense of object permanence A hydrogen atom electron is excited to an energy of 13.6/4 eV.How many different quantum states are there with this energy? -10-9-8Which inequality is graphed on the number line?OA) x>-7OB) x < -7C) x -7D) xz -7 taxpayer's adjusted gross income. Large deductions, which include charity and medical deductions, are more reasonable for taxpayers with large adjusted gross incomes. If a taxpayer claims larger than average itemized deductions for a given level of income, the chances of an IRS audit are increased. Data (in thousands of dollars) on adjusted gross income and the average or reasonable amount of itemized deductions follow. (a) Develon a scatter dianram for these data with adiusted aross income as the indenendent variable (b) Use the least squares method to develop the estimated regression equation that can be used to predict itemized deductions (in $1,000 s) given the adjusted gross income (in $1,000 s). (Round your numerical values to three decimal places.) y ^ x (c) Predict the reasonable level of total itemized deductions (in $1,000 s) for a taxpayer with an adjusted gross income of $52,500 . (Round your answer to two decimal places.) $ thousand What is the area of the shaded region?20 in9 in9 insquare inches20 ir Heritability is one of the foundational concepts of behavioral genetics, but its meaning is not always clear. Does a study showing that IQ is highly heritable among affluent children in Denmark have any implications for poor children in the United States? Or is it largely irrelevant?New research is making it increasingly obvious that the answer is: "It depends." Heritability, as the term is used by behavioral geneticists, is a statistical measure defined in relation to a particular environment and a particular population. The only way to find out whether the heritability of a trait is the same for other environments and populations is to go out and study them.In a recent study, University of Virginia psychologist Eric Turkheimer, PhD, and his colleagues did just that. Their study explored the heritability of children's IQ in different populations within the United States--those with high socioeconomic status (SES) and those with low SES.Previous studies of children's IQ have produced conflicting results. On the one hand, some studies of twins and adoptees have found large genetic effects. On the other hand, studies of impoverished children adopted by well-to-do families suggest that the environment plays an important role.For their study, published last year in Psychological Science (Vol. 14, No. 6), Turkheimer and his colleagues analyzed data from several hundred monozygotic and dizygotic twins included in the National Collaborative Perinatal Project, which followed more than 48,000 mothers and their children from birth to age 7.Turkheimer and his colleagues found that, among poor families, children who grew up in the same household tended to have similar IQ scores, regardless of how genetically similar they were. Around 60 percent of the variance was accounted for by environment, while genes contributed almost nothing. Among affluent families, the reverse was true. Monozygotic twins with identical genes tended to have much more similar IQ scores than dizygotic twins, regardless of family environment.The findings suggest that it makes little sense to speak in general about the heritability of a trait such as IQ. For large populations of people who live in diverse environments, such as children in the United States, such broad statements may be meaningless. The environment can make genes extremely important in some subpopulations, but insignificant in others, notes Turkheimer.Such findings do not challenge the traditional definition of heritability--the proportion of variance on a particular trait that is accounted for by genetic factors within the population as a whole, says Terrie Moffitt, PhD, of the University of Wisconsin and King's College London. But they are important reminders that heritability can vary dramatically depending on the population and the environment that is being studied Why are twin studies valuable in behavioral genetics research? What does the research say about the effect of environment on IQ scored in poor homes versus affluent homes? What does this suggest?What is the conclusion of the Article? How might these findings be useful to other researchers? When the sun exhibits lower numbers of sunspots, ______ typically occur on the earth.A. warmer temperaturesB. cooler temperatures Instructions: The questions are all mandatory. Documents are not allowed. Ten experiments (only four are reported here) were done to find the link between sales volumes and bonus rates paid to the sales team in specific months. 1. According to you, which variable should be the dependent one? Explain your answer. 2. Draw a scatter diagram of sales volumes and bonus rates. Interpret it. 3. Find the equation for the line of best fit through the data. Do not forget to write down the estimated equation. Provide a table containing the underlying calculations. 4. Interpret the coefficients obtained in the question (3). 5. Present the analysis of variance. 3. A circle has an initial radius of 50ft when the radius begins decreasing at the rate of 3ft/min. What is the rate in the change of area at the instant that the radius is 16ft ? The rate of change of the area is ____ (1) ___ (Type an exact answer in terms of .) (1) O ft3.O ft3/min.O ft. O ft2. O ft/min. O ft2/min 85. A "no stopping" sign means that, unless directed to do so by a policeman, you may stop onlyA. For less than 5 minutes.B. To avoid conflict with other traffic.C. Long enough to unload packages.D. To discharge passengers. What do type theorists attemt to create? What is a New Chemical Entities (NCE)? When do leaders use troop leading procedures? 3. Suppose the own price elasticity of market demand for retail gasoline is -0.8, the Rothschild index is 0.5, and a typical gasoline retailer enjoys sales of $1.5 million annually. What is the price elasticity of demand for a representa- tive gasoline retailer's product? A homeowner notices that 8 out of 14 days the mail arrives before 3pm. She concludes that the probability that the mail will arrive before 3pm tomorrow is about 57%. Is this an example of a theoretical or empirical probability? What are the Assessment Interventions for Constipation r/t Immobility ? Xerophytic adaptations are exemplified by which combination of the following features? 1. stomata close at night and open during the day 2. rolled leaves 3. thick waxy cuticles 4. reduction in leaf area 5. hairy leaves What samples would you send to the lab and what tests would you ask for to diagnose a late abortion?