The 'good' bacteria living in a
digestive tract to remove other
forms of bacteria is an example of...
A. a parasite.
B. mutualism.
C. commensalism.

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

It's B

Explanation:

Mutualism: An interaction between individuals of different species that results in positive (beneficial) effects on per capita reproduction and/or survival of the interacting populations.

Digestive bacteria and humans. Inside our bodies is what we call good bacteria(mutualism), which aids in digesting the food we take.


Related Questions

biological classification is important because it allows scientists to study organisms in a ___ way​

Answers

Answer:

Systematic.

Explanation:

Biological classification is important because it allows scientists to study organisms in a systematic way​.

In Science, this biological classification of living organisms based on similarities or characteristics such as eyes, number of legs, etc., is generally referred to as taxonomy.

Taxonomy can be defined as the process of naming, classification and description of living organisms such as plants and animals. The eight (8) biological classification (taxonomy) used for grouping and organizing organisms are; kingdom, domain, phylum, family, order, class, species and genus.

Hence, taxonomy helps scientist to have a good understanding and knowledge when studying various organisms.

define organic agriculture production for at least three to five sentences​

Answers

Answer

Organic farming can be defined as an agricultural process that uses biological fertilisers and pest control acquired from animal or plant waste. Organic farming was initiated as an answer to the environmental sufferings caused by the use of chemical pesticides and synthetic fertilisers.

Why dos a single X chromosome that carriers the allele for red-green color blindness cause males to be color blind but doesn’t cause females to be color blind?

Answers

Answer:

Because females have two X chromosomes and the red-green color blindness allele has to be in both chromosomes to cause the woman to be color blinded. In the case of males, they only have one X chromosome, so if the allele for red-green color blindness is in the chromosome, the male will be color blinded since there is no other X chromosome with the normal allele as in females.

Explanation:

What determines if a person's sex is the genes X and Y. A sperm carries one of these two genes. When it meets the egg, this one will give the other chromosome, which is always X. So, if the sperm carries the X chromosome, the result, when the egg's fertilized, will be XX, which will give the information to develop a female human. If the sperm carries the Y chromosome, the result will be XY, which is a male.

As females are XX, if the red-green color blindness gene is in one of them, the other chromosome, which does not have this allele, will prevent the woman from being color blinded. We can say that women have a backup copy that prevents color blindness.

In the case of males, as they are XY, there is no extra copy that can prevent them from being red-green color blinded, so when a male has an X chromosome with this allele, they will be color blinded. In the case of women, they will only be carriers of the gene and will be color blinded if the two X chromosomes have the red-green color blindness allele.

what do you think would be a LIMITING FACTOR for elk populations in Yellowstone and why​

Answers

I believe that a limiting factor for elk populations in Yellowstone would be food. Food is something that is a limited factor and can go away at any point. In this case, if the food went away, the elk must compete with each other and other animals for the food that is still there. I hope this helps you!




Which property (quality) of fossils allows scientists to determine the relative ages of rock layers?
A.Fossils show change over time as species evolve.
B.Fossils form from the remains of living organisms.
C.Fossils are usually found only in sedimentary rock.
D.Fossils can be analyzed to determine their exact age

Answers

Is the ✨ A ✨


Hope this can help you

The  property (quality) of fossils allows scientists to determine the relative ages of rock layers are fossils show change over time as species evolve.

What is the minimum age of a fossil?

A living being that lived more than 11 thousand years ago is considered a fossil, that is, before the Holocene, which is the current geological epoch. Ancient remains or evidence, but less than 11,000 years old, such as sambaquis, are classified as subfossils.

Chemistry is present in this process, more precisely the element Carbon. The dating of a fossil can be done based on the already known percentage of Carbon-14 (C14) in relation to Carbon-12 (C12) of living matter (without decomposition).

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Genetic movement is also known as genetic what?

Answers

Explanation:

Genetic disorders of the central nervous system have a propensity to cause movement disorders or ataxia, as a part of the phenotype, or sometimes as the main phenotypic manifestation. The Online Mendelian Inheritance in Man (OMIM) database lists over 500 entries for disorders of which ataxia or a movement disorder form part. Neurologists should be alert to the possibility that patients with complex disorders involving involuntary movements or unsteadiness may have a genetic disorder.

Only those gene loci with relevance to the practising neurologist will be discussed; a more complete listing of other loci, many of which apply only to individual kindreds, is available in referenced review articles.

HUNTINGTON’S DISEASE

Huntington’s disease (HD) is the prototypic neurogenetic disorder, one of the first to be mapped (1983) and subsequently cloned (1993), and the model on which presymptomatic genetic testing is based.

The clinical triad of movement disorder, psychiatric features, and eventual dementia will be well known to neurologists. Chorea is the first manifestation in about two thirds of patients, initially a mild fidgetiness apparent only to the careful observer, which gradually progresses and may be the only clinical manifestation of HD for several years. Severe chorea may respond well to neuroleptics such as sulpiride. Personality change and eye movement disorders including slow saccades, and head thrusting or blinking to generate saccadic eye movements, are also common early features. A wide range of movement disorders including parkinsonism, loss of postural stability, and dystonia eventually supervene, leading to increasingly functional impairment. Progressive weight loss, often resulting in cachexia, is common. Presentation is usually in the forth or fifth decades, but may be at almost any age. The juvenile onset form of HD may present with parkinsonism, the so-called Westphal variant, while late onset forms may cause chorea alone.

Expansion of a polyglutamine (CAG) trinucleotide repeat beyond the critical threshold of 36 repeats results in disease, and forms the basis of the polymerase chain reaction based genetic test. Expansion size is inversely related to age at onset, but the range in age at onset for a given repeat size is so large that repeat size is not a useful predictor for individuals. Inheritance is dominant with full penetrance, meaning that almost all mutation carriers will eventually develop the disease, except those with 36–39 repeats where penetrance is reduced. Meiotic instability with a tendency to increasing expansion size, particularly during spermatogenesis, provides the molecular basis for the phenomenon of anticipation. Thus, juvenile onset cases with very large expansions usually have an affected father. A small minority (< 1%) of individuals have expansions in an intermediate range (29–35 repeats), believed to be an asymptomatic but unstable pre-mutation range, which may expand to cause disease in offspring. Dentatorubropallidoluysian atrophy (DRPLA), also caused by a trinucleotide repeat expansion, may be difficult to distinguish clinically from early onset HD, and so is usually tested for with HD.

Predictive genetic testing of asymptomatic at-risk relatives of affected patients is governed by international guidelines (see Hanna and Wood on page ii2). Prenatal testing in known mutation carriers is routinely available, while linkage based exclusion testing is available to those at-risk women who do not wish to know their own gene status. The latter depends on termination of a pregnancy where linkage shows the fetus to have the same 50% genetic risk as the mother. Preimplantation diagnosis based on selection of unaffected IVF embryos is available in some centres.

THE DYSTONIAS

Dystonia is a feature of many hereditary neurodegenerative and metabolic disorders. In most of these disorders, dystonia usually occurs in the setting of a broader clinical phenotype, and careful clinical assessment reveals other features such as cognitive involvement, pyramidal signs, or ocular abnormalities.

Primary dystonias

In this group of disorders, dystonia or dystonic tremor is (with the exception of parkinsonism in dopa responsive dystonia (DRD)) the only clinical manifestation, and imaging and pathology are usually unrevealing. These disorders have a genetic basis, with dominant inheritance in most cases. The most important of these disorders to the neurologist are DYT1 dystonia and DRD.

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We have two kinds of rats, dark brown and white rats in a population. In a rain forest scenario, with dark top soil, which kind of rats can survive better, taking into consideration, natural selection?

a.
White rat

b.
Both of them will survive

c.
Brown rat

d.
Neither

Answers

Answer:

C

Explanation:

they blend in with the soil color

HELP PLS!!

Match the following terms and definitions.

1. Glycolysis

2. electron transport chain

3. Krebs cycle

breaks down glucose into pyruvic acid and ATP

picks up hydrogens and produces ATP

produces carbon dioxide, water, and ATP

Answers

Answer:

1. Glycolysis - breaks down glucose into pyruvate and ATP.

2. Electron Transport Chain - picks up Hydrogen and produces ATP.

3. Krebs Cycle - produces carbon dioxide, water, and ATP.

Explanation:

1. Glycolysis takes a molecule of glucose and breaks it down into two molecules of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate(G3P) which ends up as pyruvate producing 4 molecules of ATP ( two from each G3P molecule). However, there is technically a net gain of 2 ATP molecules.

2. Electron Transport Chain - takes Hydrogen from energy-rich molecules, NADHH and FADH2, and produces ATP through a series of steps in the mitochondria.

3. Krebs Cycle - produces carbon dioxide, water, and ATP from pyruvate oxidation which occurs in the mitochondrial matrix (in eukaryotes).

RNA is used in the process of translation to build proteins. Which of these correctly describes the role of the different types of RNA in
protein synthesis? Choose ALL that apply.
A)
rRNA makes up the ribosome.
B)
ERNA carries amino acids to ribosome.
C)
tRNA carries nucleotides to the ribosome.
D
mRNA copies the genetic code from DNA and carries it to the ribosome.
mRNA code is read to determine the sequence of amino acids in the
protein

Answers

Answer:

I think its A and D

Explanation:

Sorry if I'm wrong good luck.

D i hope you get this right i

Please help?.?.?.?.?

Answers

Answer:

1.fungi

2.Temperature and Light

3.If the living organism does not get the air, water, food, nutrients, or light it needs to survive then it will die.

4.The relation ship is they need each other to live

Explanation:

np give brainliest and thank!

Smallholders have historically been for-profit commercial horticulturalists rather than subsistence farmers.

True
False

Answers

False I think hope it help ur Can I plz get a ty for trying :)):;(((((

Where are ribosomes produced?

Answers

Answer:

In bacterial cells, ribosomes are synthesized in the cytoplasm through the transcription of multiple ribosome gene operons. In eukaryotes, the process takes place both in the cell cytoplasm and in the nucleolus, which is a region within the cell nucleus.

Hope this helps!

HELP EASY QUESTION Definition: This is an organism's response to a stimulus developed by being taught or watching another organism. Example: how to open a soda when you're thirsty

Answers

It is a learned behavior.

How much oxygen does the
atmosphere contain?
O 12%
0 76%
O 35%
0 26%

Answers

Answer:

20.95%

Explanation:

By volume, dry air contains 78.09% nitrogen, 20.95% oxygen, 0.93% argon, 0.04% carbon dioxide, and small amounts of other gases. Air also contains a variable amount of water vapor, on average around 1% at sea level, and 0.4% over the entire atmosphere.

Name how soil and water are negatively affected by food production

Answers

Answer:

- Water: salinization due to irrigation, water pollution, etc.

- Soil: erosion (mechanization), porosity, accumulation of harmful pesticides/herbicides, loss of microbe biodiversity, etc.

Explanation:

Improper agricultural practices are associated with the pollution of soil and water. It is well known that the overuse of fertilizers or pesticides/herbicides contaminates both the soil and water and disturbs the composition of nutrients in the soil. Moreover, improper agricultural practices also reduce soil porosity, produce soil erosion and increase soil salinity/alkalinity. Moreover, improper practices may also increase pollution by increasing the concentrations of nutrients and toxic pollutants in both water and crops. Finally, irrigation techniques increase salinity levels in water and soil.

define the term chylomicron​

Answers

Fat found in blood and lymphatic fluid
Chylomicrons are large triglyceride-rich lipoproteins produced in enterocytes from dietary lipids—namely, fatty acids, and cholesterol.

Describe in your own words, human ovulation and the menstrual cycle

Answers

Answer:

Ovulation occurs around 14 days before your period. If your average menstrual cycle is 28 days, you ovulation is on most likely on day 14. If the usual menstrual cycle is 35 days ovulation most likely happens day 21.

Explanation:

hope this helped!

The menstrual cycle is a (generally) 28 day cycle in which the fertilized egg is released through the ovaries and out the vulva. When an egg isn’t fertilized by a sperm, the walls of the uterus shed giving females a period. Bleeding is generally around 7 days but varies from individual to individual. Ovulation happens when the egg is being released and is ready to be fertilized, making it a good time to try and conceive a child.

Microbial food fermentation is often performed as a preservation method to inhibit the growth of food spoilage microorganisms that may be present in or on the food. The fermentation process often leads to an overall pH decrease of the food to levels below 4. This drop most likely causes many ________ to be inhibited.

Answers

Answer:

This question lacks options, options are:

A. Acidophiles B. Alkaliphiles C. Neutrophiles

The correct answer is A. This drop most likely causes many acidophiles to be inhibited.

Explanation:

Microbial fermentation is one of the basic biotechnical processes for the efficient formation of active substances. Fermentation uses fungi, bacteria or cell cultures to transform raw materials into chemicals. Acidophiles is usually bacteria and other very simple organisms that are capable of developing in conditions of too low a pH for most forms of life. Each microorganism has a pH range in which it can grow and a well-defined optimum pH. Depending on the pH, we find acidophiles (1.1 - 5.5), neutrophilic (5.5 - 8.0) and alkaline (8.5 - 11.5) microorganisms, which grow well in acidic, neutral and alkaline pH respectively. Fermentation is carried out to prevent the development of other microorganisms that can alter the quality of the food. Anaerobic digestion is a microbial fermentation in the partial or total absence of oxygen that gives rise to a mixture of gases, in which methane and carbon dioxide are mainly found. Anaerobic microorganisms mainly obtain their energy through the use of fermentation pathways, where organic compounds such as acids and alcohols, among others, basically serve as final electron acceptors. Bacteria, in carrying out these processes, are conditioned by some physical and chemical factors, which enable their proper development, these factors are: loads of organic matter, volatile fatty acids, temperature, alkalinity, nutrients and the presence of N and P , among others.

The digestion of food in the absence of oxygen and release of oxygen is called fermentation.

Microbes that perform the fermentation are usually anaerobic bacteria.

Microbial food fermentation is often performed as a preservation method to inhibit the growth of food spoilage microorganisms that may be present in or on the food. The fermentation process often leads to an overall pH decrease of the food to levels below 4. This drop most likely causes many acidophiles to be inhibited.

Acidophiles or acidophilic organisms are those that thrive under highly acidic conditions.

The lower ph makes the food acidic, due to acidic in nature the bacteria are not able to survive in that conditions.

For more information, refer to the link:-

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Which of the following endocrine conditions is this patient at risk of developing?
A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Pheochromocytoma
C. Addison's disease
D. Cushing's syndrome

Answers

You would have to share the symptoms of the patient as well..

26. the first documented patient in a disease epidemic within a population?
A. The suspect
B. The definitive host
C. The carrier
D. The index case

27. During the lab, the time was needed for E. Coli to show some growth after UV light exposure which indicates some DNA repair?
A. 0 second
B. 30 seconds
C. 1 minute
D. 2 minutes

28. Mannitol salt agar is classified as:
A. Enriched medium
B. Selective medium
C. Differential medium
D. A. and b.
E. B. and c.

29. Mannitol salt agar is used to identify & differentiate
A. Fungi
B. Enteric bacteria
C. Staphylococcus
D. Streptococcus
E. Gram (-) cocci

30. The Ingredient in Mannitol salt plate which makes the agar selective is?
A. Salt
B. Glucose
C. Mannitol
D. Bile acids

Answers

Answer:

a a c

Explanation:

In which chromosome are sex-linked genes usually found? Explain why these genes are called "sex-linked"

Answers

Explanation:

Sex linked is a trait in which a gene is located on a sex chromosome. In humans, the term generally refers to traits that are influenced by genes on the X chromosome. This is because the X chromosome is large and contains many more genes than the smaller Y chromosome. In a sex-linked disease, it is usually males who are affected because they have a single copy of X chromosome that carries the mutation. In females, the effect of the mutation may be masked by the second healthy copy of the X chromosome.

How does the shape of the red blood allow diffusion to occur efficiently

Answers

Answer:

The partial pressure of oxygen determines the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen. Red blood cells have the shape of a flattened disk, generating a broad surface area for the diffusion of oxygen. Since their only purpose is carrying oxygen throughout the body, they lack many typical cell structures, including a nucleus.

Explanation:

Hope this helps

Answer:

* Because of their viscoelastic characteristic, red blood cells are able to squeeze through very thin capillaries in order to deliver oxygen and remove carbon dioxide. * The biconcave shape of red blood cells helps maximize the overall surface area required for oxygen absorption.

Explanation:

Why do you think Community Health Workers serve as connectors to the community?​

Answers

Answer:

CHWs may perform the following roles: Create connections between vulnerable populations and healthcare providers. ... Ensure cultural competence among healthcare providers serving vulnerable populations. Educate healthcare providers and stakeholders about community health needs

Explanation:

Hope it helps! Correct me if I am wrong!

I'm sure about my answer!

If you dont mind can you please mark me as brainlest?

Its ok if you don't want to!

Most fossils are of what


Answers

Answer:

anything

Explanation:

Normal mitotic cell division results in each daughter cell having 1/2 the chromosomes
A True
B False

Answers

Answer:

B

Explanation:

it should be a whole number and not 1/2

Do Birds Really Abandon Their Chicks If Humans Touch Them? 25 points!!

Answers

Answer:

Yes they do.

Explanation:

birds will abandon their young after being touched by human hands because they can smell the scent of the human on their babies. This then causes the mother bird to become afraid of possible predators and to leave its children to the elements

answer: no

explanation: parent birds do not recognize their young by smell. They will not abandon a baby if it has been touched by humans.

id- 5121786233 p/w- tepQ3w​

Answers

Answer:

I need 1 Brainliest before I can become Virtuoso

Explanation:

Answer:................. I just needed the points so I can get help on my math work........

Explanation:

Please help. I have been stuck on this diagram. Can someone help me fill it in.

Answers

Answer:

The definitions are the following.

Explanation:

Transpiration is the process in which water is evaporated from the body of plants.

Sublimation is the changing of state of a substance directly from the solid to the gas state, without passing through the liquid state.

Precipitation is the falling of water from the cloud in the form of rain and snowfall due to condensation of water vapors.

Runoff is the excess liquid that flows across the surface of the land.

Infiltration is the process in which water that are present on the ground surface enters the soil.

Cohesion is the sticking together of particles of the same substance with one another.

Adhesion is the clinging of dissimilar particles or surfaces to one another.

polarity is a state of an atom or a molecule which gain positive and negative charges.

In humans most of an of offsprings genes comes from the father true or false

Answers

Answer:

False. You actually have more from your mother.

A segment of a DNA strand is shown. AGGTCAGG
a. What is the complementary DNA strand?

b. What is the mRNA strand?

c. What amino acids are produced as a result (use the codon chart to help you)

Answers

Answer:

b. messenger ribonucleic acid

a. The complementary DNA strand is the sequence that pairs with the given DNA strand. In DNA, adenine (A) pairs with thymine (T), and cytosine (C) pairs with guanine (G). Therefore, the complementary DNA strand of "AGGTCAGG" would be "TCCAGTCC".

b. The mRNA strand is synthesized based on the complementary DNA strand. In mRNA, thymine (T) is replaced by uracil (U). Therefore, the mRNA strand corresponding to the given DNA sequence "AGGTCAGG" would be "UCCAGUCC".

c. To determine the amino acids produced, we need to identify the codons (groups of three nucleotides) in the mRNA strand and refer to a codon chart (also known as a genetic code chart). Here's an example of how the codons in the mRNA strand "UCCAGUCC" can be translated:

UCC (Serine)

AGU (Serine)

CCU (Proline)

Therefore, the resulting amino acid sequence would be Serine-Serine-Proline.

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