Mandy and Pete have a biased spinner numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5. They each want to find an estimate for the probability that the spinner will land on a 5. Mandy spins the spinner 20 times and records the number of times the spinner lands on a 5. Pete spins the spinner 200 times and records the number of times the spinner lands on a 5. Is Mandy or Pete more likely to get the better estimate? You must give a reason for your answer.

Answer:

[tex]\boxed{\textsf{ The degree measure is \textbf{ 48}$^{\textbf{o}}$.}}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Here we are given radian measure which is 4π/15 radians . We know the relationship between Radian and Degree measure as ,

[tex]\qquad\boxed{\boxed{ \sf\pi rad = 180^o }}[/tex]

Put on the respective values ,

=> π rad = 180°

=> 1 rad = 180°/ π

=> 4π/15 rad = 180°/π × 4π/15

=> 4π/15 rad = 48 °

Answer:

$13500. 00 is the 15% increase yearly + $90000.00 = $103,500.00 new yearly salary

Answer:

1) 3x

2) 3m - 2n

Answer:

below

Step-by-step explanation:

3x, 3 m − 2 n

Answer:

2 5/8-

Step-by-step explanation:

i hope my answer helped u out and if its right may i get brainliest.

Answer:

-2 5/8

Step-by-step explanation

6x+30(less than or equal to sign) 150

The max amount of friends she can bring is 20 that is the answer to the question

Answer:

Ice forces the cracks to become larger and larger, eroding bits of stone in the process. During brief, heavy rains, water rushes down the cracks, eroding even more rocks and stone. As more rocks crumble and fall, the canyon grows wider at the top than at the bottom.

Answer:

The change after five years is equal to -$100

Step-by-step explanation:

If the insurance payment is equal to P = N dollars, where P is a real number, we know that after one year, the payment decreaces by $20, so the new payment is:

P = N - $20

Then, after 5 years, the $20 dollars are discounted five times, so the payment will be:

P = N -5*$20 = N - $100

Then the total change after 5 years is equal to those $100 that are being subtracted in the last equation.

Answer:

you find the area of in and ouside then subtract

Step-by-step explanation:

the area in squ is 146

Answer:

1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

y2-y1 divided by x2-x1 is (9-8)/(5-3)= 1/2

Answer:

slope= 1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

2/12

Step-by-step explanation:

4 + 2 = 6 + 6 = 12

there is 2 blue pens

so 2 out of 12

CAN I HAVE BRAINLEIST PLEASE?????

Answer:

1/6

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 12 pens in the box and 2 blue pens

Probability to selecting a blue pen is 2/12 = 1/6

Answer:

2,7 is correct

Step-by-step explanation:

y equal to 4x -1

put values

7 equal to 4(2)-1

7 equal to 8-1

7 equal to 7

Answer:

1900pieces

Step-by-step explanation:

95/0.05=1900

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Since x=-4 plug in the -4 into the equation to find y,

-5(-4)-4y=16

20-4y=16                                                                                                                             -20       -20                                                                                                                   __________

-4y=-4

-4y/-4=-4/-4

___________

y=1

So now you found both x and y so plug in both now to check if both are correct.

-5(-4)-4(1)=16

20-4=16

16=16

So both y and x are correct.

Hope this helps!:)

Answer:

lisa has been dancing for 9 yrs

Step-by-step explanation:

6+3=9

and ive been dancing for longer than both of them lol hope this helped :)

Answer:

9 Years

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

x= 27

Step-by-step explanation:

81=3x

divide by 3

x= 27

Answer:

x = 27

Step-by-step explanation:

hopefully that is the answer

Answer:

how am i gonna solve the equation if i cant see the actual chart?

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

C) 718.3 cubic yards

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope this helps :)

Answer:

228.6π cubic yards

Step-by-step explanation:

Volume of a cone formula: V = 1/3hπr²

h = 14

r = 7

Just plug in the values.

1/3(14)π(7)² = 228.6π

Step-by-step explanation:

a+10=44°[being interior angle of triangle]

a=44-10

a=34

now

2a

2×34

68

igussss

Answer:

25

Step-by-step explanation:

The way I did this was I added all the numbers together (number through Monday-Friday) and got 17. Then I started off with 20, and multiplied 20 by 0.68 to get 13.6, now I’m trying to get up to 17 so I kept going up by 1 to finally try 25 x 0.68 = 17. Hopefully this makes sense!

Answer:

its 8/3 and 2

Step-by-step explanation:

its that answer because on the chart its f(x and g(x and there both on there

Answer:

It should be C

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope this helps!

Answer:

The diameter is 6

Step-by-step explanation:

When you are using a radius and are trying to find the diameter always multiply the radius by 2. A radius is half of a diameter.

Hope this helps.

The diameter of the pancake is 6 inches.

Diameter is the distance through the center of the circle from one side to the other side.

Radius of pancake[tex]=3[/tex] inches

The formula to find the diameter of the pancake is [tex]d=2r[/tex]

⇒[tex]d=2[/tex]×[tex]r[/tex]

⇒[tex]d=2[/tex]×[tex]3[/tex]

⇒[tex]d=6[/tex]

Thus The diameter of the pancake is [tex]d=6inches[/tex]

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The experimental value of probability of the arrow landing on a section labeled with a multiple of 4 is 3/4 or 0.75

The probability that an event will occur is measured by the ratio of favorable examples to the total number of situations possible

Probability = number of desirable outcomes / total number of possible outcomes

The value of probability lies between 0 and 1

Given data ,

The probability that the arrow lands on a section labeled with a multiple of 4 is an experimental probability since it is based on the results of an actual experiment or trial.

The experimental probability is given by:

Experimental probability = Number of times the event occurred / Total number of trials

In this case, the event is the arrow landing on a section labeled with a multiple of 4, and the total number of trials is 60.

From the given information, we know that the arrow landed on a section labeled with a multiple of 4 on 45 out of 60 times.

So the experimental probability is:

Experimental probability = 45/60

Simplifying:

Experimental probability = 3/4

Hence , the experimental probability of the arrow landing a multiple of 4 is 3/4 or 0.75

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Answer:

50%

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: 166.4/249.6/416

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Hi!

Step-by-step explanation:

Slope is -15/8

Final answer is -15/8

I hope this helps you!

Have  a nice day! :)

-

:D

Step-by-step explanation:

Slope is rise over run. This means your y is over your x. Start with subtracting your y values. It doesn't matter which way, just make sure you do the same with the x values. For this, I'll do it 6 - -9. The two negatives cancel out and make a positive, so your y value is 15. Now, do the same to the x values. -9 - -1 is -8. You're left with 15/-8. Since this can't be simplified, this is your final answer. Hope I helped!

Answer:

The answer is 7............

Answer:

y = -4 - (-11)

Since all the variables and constants are together on each side, just solve as is.

y = -4 - (-11)

y = 7

Step-by-step explanation:

hope this helps:)

Answer:

A) v = T/2 - 5

Step-by-step explanation:

T = 10+2v

2v = T-10

v = (T-10)/2 = T/2-5

The equation that describes no. of DVDs that Ingrid can rent is A.              v = (T/2) - 5.

An equation states that terms on both sides of the equality sign are equal.

The monthly membership costs 10 dollars, and The rent for each DVD costs 2 dollars.

No. of DVDs that can be rented is denoted by v based on T.

The equation that describes the total cost of renting DVDs is,

T = 2v + 10.

∴ The equation that describes no. of DVDs that can be rented is

2v = T  - 10.

v = (T/2) - 5.

learn more about equations here :

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Answer:

The answer is 28

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the total measurements of triangle corners are equal to 180

Then

[tex]2x + 3x - 10 + 50 = 180 \\ 5x - 40 = 180 \\ 5x = 140 \\ x = 28[/tex]

Answer:

$0.25

Step-by-step explanation:

2-0z bag of M&Ms costing $0.50 is better, because

0.50/2 = $0.25