is the rough ER nearer or further from the nucleus?
Rough ER is located next to the cell's nucleus, and the nuclear envelope's outer membrane runs right through its membrane. Proteins with a signal sequence that leads them precisely to the ER for processing are synthesised by the ribosomes on rough ER, which are experts in this field.
To be more precise, the smooth ER appears to be distributed evenly throughout the cell, but the density of rough ER is higher close to the nucleus and Golgi apparatus. The cell is filled with rough ER, but the density is higher close to the nucleus and the Golgi apparatus. The membrane bound' ribosomes on the rough endoplasmic reticulum are in charge of putting together a lot of proteins.
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The velocity of action potential conduction across a nerve axon is increased by the presence of the myelin sheath. In the peripheral nervous system, what cell myelinates the axon?
In the peripheral nervous system (PNS), the cells responsible for myelinating axons are called Schwann cells. Schwann cells are a type of glial cell that wraps around the axons of neurons in a spiral fashion, creating multiple layers of lipid-rich myelin sheaths.
The myelin sheath acts as an insulating layer, allowing the action potential to travel more rapidly along the axon. Schwann cells develop from neural crest cells and play an important role in supporting and maintaining the health of the neurons they myelinate. In addition to myelination, Schwann cells also participate in axon regeneration following injury.
Each Schwann cell only myelinates a small segment of a single axon, leaving gaps called the Nodes of Ranvier between adjacent segments. The presence of the Nodes of Ranvier allows for saltatory conduction, in which the action potential jumps from one node to the next, greatly increasing the speed of conduction.
In contrast to the PNS, the myelin sheaths in the central nervous system (CNS) are formed by a different type of glial cell called oligodendrocytes. However, the basic process of myelination and the role of myelin in increasing the speed of action potential conduction are similar in both the PNS and CNS.
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how do you see what was covered in this unit - the expression of the dominant and recessive traits, linkages, crossing over - as it fits into the course overall? specifically, what is the integration of central dogma to this material?
The study of dominant and recessive traits, linkages, and crossing over is an essential component of genetics, which is a fundamental discipline within the broader field of biology.
These topics are crucial to understanding how genetic information is passed down from one generation to the next and how it can be manipulated for various purposes. The central dogma, which describes the flow of genetic information from DNA to RNA to proteins, is integral to this material because it provides the framework for understanding how genetic information is expressed and how changes in DNA can lead to different phenotypes.
By understanding the relationship between genetics and central dogma, students can gain a comprehensive understanding of the mechanisms underlying biological processes.
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Hormone receptor changes due to anaerobic training
There is no proof that anaerobic exercise affects resting hormone levels in a predictable way. Only a reduced amount of both testosterone and growth hormone have been proven to be produced by long-term training under the same load.
What hormones are released when exercising anaerobically?During ANE and AE, respectively, testosterone and oestradiol levels rose by 14% and 16% and 22% and 28%. The findings suggest that anaerobic exercise significantly increases emotional stress and sympatho-adrenal activity. Cortisol and growth hormone seem to be more impacted by vigorous, protracted exercise.
What physiological alterations result from anaerobic exercise?The physiological changes brought about by anaerobic exercise, in contrast, include increased ATP production efficiency, increased lactic acid tolerance, and rapid and forceful muscular contractions.
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Question:
How does anaerobic training affect hormone receptor changes?
Describe hands on action that has been used to save the California condor from the brink of extinction.
The California condor, a critically endangered species, has been saved from the brink of extinction through a series of hands-on actions.
Scientists and conservationists implemented a captive breeding program to increase the bird's population. Eggs were collected from wild nests and hatched in captivity, and the chicks were hand-reared before being released into the wild. Radio transmitters were attached to some released condors to track their movements and study their behavior.
Additionally, conservationists worked with landowners and government agencies to protect the bird's habitat and reduce poisoning from lead ammunition. These efforts helped to increase the condor population and prevent their extinction.
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vitamin e deficiency causes xerophthalmia, a type of irreversible blindness due to hardening of the cornea. vitamin e deficiency causes xerophthalmia, a type of irreversible blindness due to hardening of the cornea. true false
Vitamin E deficiency does NOT cause xerophthalmia, a type of irreversible blindness due to the hardening of the cornea. It is actually Vitamin A deficiency that leads to xerophthalmia. Therefore, the statement is false.
Xerophthalmia refers to the spectrum of ocular disease caused by severe Vitamin A deficiency (VAD). Vitamin A serves several essential functions in the eye, and deficiency can lead to a constellation of ocular signs and symptoms that affect the conjunctiva, cornea, and retina.
Xerophthalmia refers to the constellation of ocular signs and symptoms associated with Vitamin A deficiency. It includes conjunctival and corneal xerosis, Bitot's spots, keratomalacia, nyctalopia, and retinopathy.
Vitamin A deficiency, which usually occurs in developing countries, can cause an increase in dry eye. By adding foods rich in Vitamin A, like carrots, pumpkins, apricots, spinach, tomatoes, dairy products, and liver, you can prevent the development of this condition.
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In men, spermatozoa develop within the _______ of each testis.
In men, spermatozoa develop within the seminiferous tubules of each testis.
The male reproductive system is responsible for the production of sperm cells, which are used for the fertilization of a female egg. In order for spermatozoa to develop, the testes must provide a suitable environment. The testes are located inside the scrotum, and each contains a tightly coiled tube known as the seminiferous tubules.
These tubules are where spermatozoa are produced, and they form the functional unit of the testes. The seminiferous tubules are lined with spermatogenic epithelial cells which are responsible for the production of spermatozoa. The spermatozoa are then matured in the epididymis, where they are stored until ejaculation.
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the best way to reduce our reliance upon fossil fuels and address our energy needs in the future is to .
The best way to reduce our reliance upon fossil fuels and address our energy needs in the future is to transition to renewable energy sources such as wind, solar, and hydropower.
This will not only decrease our carbon emissions but also create new jobs and stimulate economic growth. Additionally, implementing energy efficiency measures such as improving insulation and using energy-efficient appliances can also help to reduce our overall energy consumption. Overall, transitioning to renewable energy sources will require a concerted effort by governments, businesses, and individuals to reduce our reliance on fossil fuels and ensure a sustainable energy future.
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How does UV radiation kill bacteria
UV (ultraviolet) radiation kills bacteria by damaging the bacterial DNA. Specifically, the UV radiation causes thymine dimers to form within the DNA molecule. Thymine dimers are when two thymine bases become bound together in a chemical bond, leading to a distortion of the DNA helix. This distortion can inhibit normal DNA replication and transcription, ultimately leading to cell death or inactivation of the bacteria.
In addition to damaging DNA, UV radiation can also damage the cell membrane and other cellular components, further contributing to bacterial death. However, it's important to note that not all bacteria are equally susceptible to UV radiation. Some bacteria have developed mechanisms to repair or prevent thymine dimers from forming, making them more resistant to UV damage.
What is the composition of the backbone of DNA?A. Alternating sugar and phosphate moleculesB. Complementary base pairsC. Alternating sugar and base moleculesD. A polysaccharide
The backbone of a DNA is basically made up of an alternating sugar as well as phosphate groups.
The correct option is option A.
DNA is basically composed of two complimentary strands which happen to wind around each other almost to look like a twisted ladder. Each of the two strands of the DNA has a backbone which is made up of the alternating sugar, which is the deoxyribose sugar as well as the phosphate groups.
Each of the sugar has one of the each of the four bases which are the guanine (G), adenine (A), cytosine (C), or thymine (T).
Hence, the correct option is option A.
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ammonia-oxidizing archaea (aoa) are found in marine environments, where they play an important role in which of the following? choose one: a. reducing nitrite to ammonia b. providing phytoplankton with ammonia for redox energy c. converting nonusable ammonia to nitrite d. maintaining
Ammonia-oxidizing archaea (AOA) play an important role in converting ammonia to nitrite in marine environments. Therefore, the correct answer is option c: converting nonusable ammonia to nitrite.
AOA are involved in the first step of nitrification, which is the conversion of ammonia to nitrite. Nitrite can then be further oxidized to nitrate by nitrite-oxidizing bacteria (NOB). This process is important for the nitrogen cycle in marine environments, as it converts ammonia, which can be toxic at high concentrations, into less toxic forms of nitrogen that can be used by other organisms.
While ammonia can also be used by phytoplankton as a source of nitrogen, this is typically done through uptake of ammonia rather than through the nitrification process. Additionally, AOA do not play a direct role in reducing nitrite to ammonia, as this is typically done by nitrate-reducing bacteria. Finally, while the role of AOA in maintaining marine ecosystems is important, this is not directly related to their function in nitrification.
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Describe 3 hypotheses to explain higher species richness in the tropics.
There are 3 hypotheses to explain higher species richness in the tropics are; Ecological Hypothesis, Evolutionary Hypothesis, and Spatial Heterogeneity Hypothesis.
The ecological hypothesis proposes that the high species richness in the tropics is driven by favorable ecological conditions. Tropical regions typically have relatively stable climates with abundant and consistent sunlight, high precipitation, and high levels of productivity.
The evolutionary hypothesis suggests that the age of tropical ecosystems plays a role in the high species richness observed in these regions. Tropical ecosystems are often considered to be ancient, with long periods of stable climate and evolutionary processes occurring over millions of years.
The spatial heterogeneity hypothesis proposes that the complex and varied habitat structure of tropical ecosystems contributes to their high species richness. Tropical regions often exhibit high habitat heterogeneity, with a wide range of habitat types, such as rainforests, mangroves, coral reefs, and savannas, occurring in close proximity.
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g what is/are the important reason/s that red blood cells lack mitochondria? a. they need to be very small to squeeze through capillaries and by eliminating their mitochondria, they do not use oxygen for oxidative phosphorylation b. they carry a large amount of hemoglobin which damages mitochondria and by eliminating their mitochondria, they produce fewer reactive oxygen species (ros). c. by eliminating their mitochondria, they do not use oxygen for oxidative phosphorylation. d. they lack a nucleus and enucleated cells cannot survive with other organelles. e. by eliminating their mitochondria, they produce fewer reactive oxygen species (ros).
Important reason for red blood cells to lack mitochondria is to avoid using the oxygen they are carrying for their own energy needs. By eliminating their mitochondria, red blood cells rely solely on glycolysis to generate ATP, which allows them to preserve oxygen for delivery to the tissues and organs that need it.And anotherreason that red blood cells lack mitochondria is to preserve their small size, flexibility, and oxygen-carrying capacity, and to avoid using the oxygen they are carrying for their own energy needs
The important reason that red blood cells lack mitochondria is to eliminate their usage of oxygen for oxidative phosphorylation.
Red blood cells are responsible for transporting oxygen from the lungs to the tissues and organs of the body. They are small and flexible to allow them to squeeze through the narrowest of capillaries and reach all parts of the body. The lack of mitochondria is essential for red blood cells to maintain their small size and flexibility, as mitochondria take up a lot of space and make cells bigger.
Moreover, red blood cells have a high concentration of hemoglobin, the protein that binds to and carries oxygen. Hemoglobin is also known to damage mitochondria, and the absence of mitochondria in red blood cells protects them from this damage.
Another important reason for red blood cells to lack mitochondria is to avoid using the oxygen they are carrying for their own energy needs. By eliminating their mitochondria, red blood cells rely solely on glycolysis to generate ATP, which allows them to preserve oxygen for delivery to the tissues and organs that need it.
In summary, the important reason that red blood cells lack mitochondria is to preserve their small size, flexibility, and oxygen-carrying capacity, and to avoid using the oxygen they are carrying for their own energy needs.
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Which of the following conditions would restrict the ability of a plant to perform photosynthesis?
Answer:oxygen
Explanation: Plant photosynthesis require light ,CO2 , Water , light for photosynthesis
Formation of oxygen is the result of photosynthesis.
Answer: Photosynthesis is the process by which plants make their own food utilizing light, water, carbon dioxide, and temperature.
Explanation: Photosynthesis can be impacted by an unfavorable supply of the four factors mentioned above. As such, the following conditions can restrict the ability of a plant to perform photosynthesis:
Too high or too low external temperatureExposure to too much or little sunlight or natural light (absorbed through a pigment called chlorophyll)Lack of supply of carbon dioxide and oxygenExcess or little water supplyTo learn more about photosynthesis:
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What is the mechanism of Anemia in Hodgkin's lymphoma?
The mechanism of anemia in Hodgkin's lymphoma is likely due to a combination of chemotherapy and radiation therapy, inflammation, immune dysfunction, etc.
In Hodgkin's lymphoma, anemia can occur due to several different mechanisms. One mechanism is due to the cancerous cells themselves invading the bone marrow, which is responsible for producing red blood cells. When the cancerous cells disrupt the normal process of producing red blood cells, anemia can occur. Chemotherapy and radiation therapy, which are often used to treat Hodgkin's lymphoma, can also cause anemia. These treatments can damage the bone marrow, leading to a reduction in red blood cell production.
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What is the stronger gene called? How are they written?
In genetics, the stronger gene is called the dominant gene, and it is usually represented by a capital letter, while the weaker gene is called the recessive gene and is represented by a lowercase letter.
For example, in the case of eye color, the dominant allele for brown eyes is represented by the letter "B", while the recessive allele for blue eyes is represented by the letter "b".
If an individual inherits one copy of the dominant allele (BB or Bb), they will have brown eyes, while if they inherit two copies of the recessive allele (bb), they will have blue eyes.
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what is opening in a coxal bone (hip bone) formed by the pubic and ischial rami
The obturator foramen in the coxal bone is a passageway for nerves, blood vessels, and muscles of the lower limb, and is an important anatomical feature for the function of the lower limb.
The opening in a coxal bone formed by the pubic and ischial rami is called the obturator foramen. The coxal bone, also known as the hip bone, is a large, irregularly shaped bone that forms part of the pelvis, the bony structure that supports the lower trunk of the body. Each coxal bone is composed of three parts: the ilium, the ischium, and the pubis.
The obturator foramen is located in the ischium and pubis regions of the bone. The obturator foramen is a large, oval-shaped opening that serves as a passageway for nerves, blood vessels, and muscles of the lower limb. Specifically, it is the site of passage for the obturator nerve, artery, and vein.
In addition, several muscles that originate or insert near the hip bone, including the adductor muscles of the thigh, pass through or attach to the borders of the obturator foramen. The obturator foramen is an important anatomical feature of the coxal bone that plays a key role in the function of the lower limb.
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How many month increments may Continued Health Care Benefit Program benefits be purchased in
The Continued Health Care Benefit Program (CHCBP) benefits can be purchased in 3-month increments. This allows for flexibility in managing your healthcare coverage needs based on your situation.
The Continued Health Care Benefit Program allows eligible individuals to purchase health care coverage for themselves and their dependents after their military service has ended. CHCBP provides one with temporary health coverage when one loses the eligibility for TRICARE for a period of 18 to 36 month. It is a premium based plan.
TRICARE is the worldwide healthcare plan for The uniformed services health insurance program known as TRICARE covers active duty service members (ADSMs), active duty family members (ADFMs), members of the National Guard and Reserve and their families, retirees and their family members, survivors, and some former spouses across the globe.
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at what point of respiration is the Haldane effect useful?
The Haldane effect is useful at the point of respiration in which oxygen is exchanged between the blood and the alveoli in the lungs.
The oxygen content in the alveoli is much higher than that of the blood, and the Haldane effect describes the fact that the hemoglobin in the blood will preferentially bind to oxygen in the alveoli, causing a shift in the pH balance of the blood.
This shift in pH causes the hemoglobin to hold onto the oxygen more tightly, allowing for a more efficient exchange of oxygen into the blood.
The Haldane effect is a crucial part of respiration, as it helps to facilitate the transfer of oxygen into the blood so that it can be used by the rest of the body.
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Cough suppressant treatment that does not cause constipation and has a low potential for substance abuse
Dextromethorphan (DM) is a cough suppressant medication that has a low potential for substance abuse and does not cause constipation. DM is available in over-the-counter cough and cold medications in various forms, such as tablets, capsules, and syrups.
DM works by decreasing the activity of the cough reflex in the brain. It is an effective cough suppressant and has been used for decades. It is considered safe when taken at recommended doses.
Other cough suppressants, such as codeine, can cause constipation and have a high potential for substance abuse. Therefore, DM is often recommended as a safer alternative.
However, it is important to note that DM can interact with other medications and cause side effects in some people. It is important to talk to a healthcare provider before taking any medication, including DM, to ensure that it is safe and appropriate for your individual needs.
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which cell type would likely be the first to attack a tumor even though it does not have specific antigen receptors?
The cell type that would likely be the first to attack a tumor even though it does not have specific antigen receptors is a natural killer (NK) cell.
Natural killer (NK) cells are a type of lymphocyte that plays an important role in the innate immune system. They are called "natural" killers because they can rapidly detect and kill certain cells without prior activation or recognition of a specific antigen, unlike other lymphocytes such as T and B cells that require activation and recognition of specific antigens.
NK cells are particularly important in defending against viral infections and cancer, as they can detect and kill virus-infected or cancerous cells. They also play a role in regulating immune responses by producing cytokines and interacting with other immune cells.
NK cells recognize target cells through a balance of signals from activating and inhibitory receptors. The activating receptors recognize stress-induced molecules on the surface of target cells, while the inhibitory receptors recognize normal self-molecules on healthy cells. The balance of signals from these receptors determines whether or not the NK cell will kill the target cell.
Defects or abnormalities in NK cell function have been associated with certain infections, autoimmune diseases, and cancers. In some cases, NK cell activity can be enhanced through immunotherapy to improve immune responses against cancer. NK cells are part of the innate immune system and can recognize and eliminate abnormal cells, including tumor cells, without the need for specific antigen recognition.
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Why do you need to watch for a thyroid storm if you are using radioactive iodine therapy to kill the thyroid for hyperthyroidism?
When radioactive iodine therapy is used to kill the thyroid gland in hyperthyroidism, there is a risk of a sudden and severe worsening of symptoms known as a thyroid storm.
This is because the therapy causes the thyroid gland to release a large amount of thyroid hormones into the bloodstream, leading to a dangerous increase in metabolic rate and other serious complications such as high fever, rapid heartbeat, and confusion.
Therefore, patients undergoing radioactive iodine therapy for hyperthyroidism need to be closely monitored for signs of a thyroid storm and treated promptly if it occurs. This typically involves medications to control symptoms and support vital organ function, as well as close medical supervision until the storm subsides.
Therefore, it's crucial to watch for a thyroid storm when using radioactive iodine therapy for hyperthyroidism.
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Signs and symptoms of ACL sprain
Answer:
The ACL is tissue that connects the thighbone to the shinbone, at the knee. Most ACL injuries occur during certain sports such as basketball, soccer, football, skiing, and tennis.
Symptoms include knee swelling, instability, and pain.
Treatment may include surgery and physical therapy.
Pain areas: in the knee
Joints: knee instability, swelling, or stiffness
Also common: bruising, limping, or pain when standing
What symptoms did the first group of men infected with HIV/AIDS share?
They often include: Fever and chills. Headache. Tiredness. Swollen lymph glands. Rash. Sore joints, muscles or throat. Weight loss.
How many minutes of rest every 4 hours shall be allowed during the last 3 months of pregnancy
During the last three months of pregnancy, it is recommended that pregnant women should get at least 10-15 minutes of rest every 4 hours to ensure that their bodies can rest and recover from the physical strain of pregnancy.
Rest is especially important during the last three months of pregnancy as the baby is growing rapidly and the mother is at her most vulnerable. Resting can help to reduce the risk of premature labor and help the mother to stay healthy and active.
Resting can also help to reduce stress and fatigue and help the mother to maintain her energy levels. By getting 10-15 minutes of rest every 4 hours, the pregnant mother can ensure that she is well rested and can better cope with the physical demands of her pregnancy.
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what is the lock-and-key theory or the induced fit model more scientfically accepted?
The induced fit model is currently more scientifically accepted than the lock-and-key theory as an explanation for enzyme-substrate interactions.
The lock-and-key theory suggests that the enzyme and substrate have rigid, complementary shapes that fit together perfectly like a lock and key, with no flexibility or alteration in the enzyme shape. However, this theory cannot account for the observation that some enzymes are able to bind to a variety of substrates with different shapes.
The induced fit model proposes that the enzyme undergoes a conformational change upon binding to the substrate, resulting in a tighter fit and increased catalytic activity. This model accounts for the ability of enzymes to bind to a range of substrates, as the enzyme shape can adapt to fit different substrates through conformational changes.
While the lock-and-key theory was once widely accepted, the induced fit model is now the more widely accepted theory based on evidence from experimental studies and molecular modeling.
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Conservation Biology arose in response to recognition of what 2 general factors?
Describe historical examples associated with buffalo, passenger pigeons, plume hunting, and longleaf pines which led to such recognition.
Answer:
Explanation:
Preservation science emerged in light of the acknowledgment of two general variables: the human-caused decline in biodiversity and the rising rates of species extinction in plants and animals.
Verifiable models related with bison, traveler pigeons, crest hunting, and longleaf pines assumed a critical part in the acknowledgment of these variables.
Buffalo: Due to commercial hunting for their hides, meat, and bones in the late 1800s, the American bison, also known as the buffalo, was nearly exterminated. Only a few hundred bison remained in the United States by the late 1800s, prompting conservation efforts to save the species.
Pigeons for travelers: With an estimated population of three to five billion birds, the passenger pigeon was once one of the most common bird species in North America. In any case, by the mid 1900s, the species was terminated because of business hunting and environment obliteration.
Hunting for plums: In the last part of the 1800s and mid 1900s, the style business requested enormous amounts of bird feathers for use in caps, prompting far reaching crest hunting. The Carolina parakeet and the great egret were among the bird species that were wiped out as a result of this practice. The need for conservation efforts was made clear by the disappearance of these species.
Pinus longifolia: In the past, millions of acres in the southeastern United States were covered by the longleaf pine ecosystem. In any case, by the mid 1900s, logging and land use changes had diminished the biological system to simply a small portion of its previous size. Longleaf pine ecosystem conservation and restoration efforts have been ongoing for decades, but much remains to be done.
The recognition of the need for conservation biology and the development of strategies to safeguard and restore endangered ecosystems and species were sparked by these and other historical examples.
what are the sedimentation coefficients of a prokaryotic ribosome?
The sedimentation coefficients of a prokaryotic ribosome are typically around 70S, with the small subunit being around 30S and the large subunit being around 50S. The sedimentation coefficient is a measure of the rate at which a particle sediments in a centrifuge and is determined by the size, shape, and density of the particle.
The 70S sedimentation coefficient of prokaryotic ribosomes is lower than the 80S sedimentation coefficient of eukaryotic ribosomes due to differences in their size and composition.
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g which enzyme is not part of gluconeogenesis? a. glucose 6-phosphatase b. pep carboxykinase c. pyruvate decarboxylase d. fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase
Gluconeogenesis is the metabolic pathway by which the body produces glucose from non-carbohydrate sources, such as proteins, fats, and lactate.
Glucose 6-phosphatase, pep carboxykinase, and fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase are all enzymes that play key roles in gluconeogenesis. Glucose 6-phosphatase catalyzes the hydrolysis of glucose 6-phosphate to free glucose, while pep carboxykinase and fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase catalyze key reactions in the pathway that convert non-carbohydrate substrates to glucose.
Pyruvate decarboxylase, on the other hand, is an enzyme involved in the fermentation of pyruvate to produce ethanol or lactic acid. It is not part of the gluconeogenesis pathway, which involves the production of glucose rather than the breakdown of glucose.
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After examining every single cell in your body, you would conclude that humans are made up mostly of__________.
A) fungal cells
B) dead cells
C) plant cells
D) bacterial cells
After examining every single cell in your body, you would conclude that humans are made up mostly of bacterial cells .
Option d is correct .
Less than half of the body's cells are made of human tissue. The remainder are microorganisms that have an impact on one's health, emotions, and ability to tolerate particular treatments .We therefore have an estimated 39 trillion microbial cells in addition to our 30 trillion human cells.
According to researchers in Israel and Canada, that is a myth that has to be dispelled. They determine that a one-to-one ratio between local bacteria and human cells is more likely.
Hence , Option d is correct .
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