how has the judiciary become more assertive

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Answer 1

The Indian judiciary has become more assertive in recent years. It has increasingly taken suo moto cognizance of issues that have an impact on the public interest and has issued directives to the executive and legislative branches of the government.

The judiciary has also played a prominent role in upholding the fundamental rights of the citizens of India, and has been very proactive in ensuring that the government upholds the rule of law. The judiciary has also taken up the cause of environmental protection and has issued directions to the government to take measures to protect the environment.

The judiciary has also been very active in taking up cases related to corruption and human rights violations. It has issued directions for the prosecution and punishment of those found guilty. Thus, the judiciary has become an important pillar of the Indian democracy and has played a major role in upholding the rule of law and protecting the fundamental rights of citizens.

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"(Round and round we go, all of us, and ever come back thither)"

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This quote is from the novel "Ulysses" by James Joyce. It reflects the cyclical nature of life and the idea that despite our efforts to move forward, we inevitably end up back where we started.

The phrase "all of us" suggests that this cyclical nature is universal, affecting everyone regardless of social status, beliefs, or experiences. The idea that we are all subject to the same patterns and cycles can be seen as a levelling force that connects us all as humans.

The final word in the quote, "thither," means "to that place." This word can be interpreted as a metaphor for a final destination or endpoint that we are all moving towards, regardless of our paths or choices. It can be seen as a reminder that despite the repetitive nature of life, we are all headed towards some ultimate destination, whether a physical place or a symbolic one.

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Tort law makes every individual:a. responsible for every injury related to actions b. responsible for injuries that they witnessc. responsible for injuries that they cause, but could not prevent d. all of the other specific choicese. none of the other specific choices

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Tort law makes every individual responsible for injuries that they cause, but could not prevent. option (c)

Tort law is a branch of civil law that deals with legal claims arising from harm caused by one person to another. Under tort law, individuals are held responsible for the injuries they cause to others, including harm caused by their actions, omissions, or negligence. This means that if an individual's actions lead to harm or injury to another person, they may be held liable for damages.

However, tort law does not make individuals responsible for every injury related to actions or injuries that they witness. Instead, liability is based on causation, meaning that individuals are responsible for injuries they cause or contribute to, but not for injuries that they could not prevent or have no connection to. Therefore, option (c) is the most accurate choice.

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If the conveyance reads "to H1 and W1, husband and wife; and H2 and W2, husband and wife, all as joint tenants with the right of survivorship in all four, and not as tenants in common," what is the title to the estate if H1 conveys his interest to W2 and H2 during life and then H2 dies?

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After H2's death, H1, W1, and W2 would each have a one-third interest in the property as joint tenants with right of survivorship.

The language in the conveyance creates a joint tenancy with right of survivorship between H1, W1, H2, and W2. This means that each of the four individuals has an equal ownership interest in the property, and if one of them were to die, their share would automatically pass to the surviving joint tenants.

If H1 were to convey his interest to W2 and H2 during his lifetime, then the four joint tenants would become H2, W1, W2, and H2. This would not change the joint tenancy with right of survivorship, as all four individuals would still have an equal ownership interest in the property.

If H2 were to die, then his share would pass automatically to the surviving joint tenants, which would be H1, W1, and W2. The conveyance language specifically states that the joint tenancy is "in all four, and not as tenants in common," so H2's share would not pass to his heirs or beneficiaries but would instead pass to the surviving joint tenants.

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Assume that Karen walks up to you and slaps you in the face. You slap her back. She sues you for battery. In this case, you:a. have a defense of privilegeb. have a defense of self-defense c. have a defense of consentd. have a defense of assault e. are guilty; pay up

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We might be able to use self-defense in this situation to combat Karen's battery allegation.

When a person uses reasonable force to defend themselves because they have a good faith fear of injury, they are claiming self-defense against a battery allegation. This is a battery because Karen smacked you in the face, which is what happened. If you reasonably believed that Karen posed an immediate threat to your safety as you slapped her back, you may have been acting in self-defense.

However, whether or not your use of force was acceptable will rely on the particulars of the incident, such as the kind and force of Karen's initial slap and any additional elements that might have been present.

Hence, the correct option is B.

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Which law was signed into effect in 1966 and regulates who may own or sell certain animals, and animal living conditions?

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The law signed into effect in 1966 that regulates who may own or sell certain animals and their living conditions is the Animal Welfare Act (AWA).

The AWA establishes guidelines for the proper care, housing, and treatment of animals, especially those used in research, exhibition, and transportation. It sets licensing requirements for dealers, breeders, and exhibitors to ensure the humane treatment of animals. The law also authorizes the United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) to inspect and enforce these regulations.

The AWA has been amended several times to expand its scope and improve animal welfare standards. In summary, the Animal Welfare Act of 1966 aims to protect the well-being of various animals while regulating the ownership and sale of certain species.

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Is an element of Total Stopping Distance.a) Braking Distanceb) Reaction Distancec) Perception Distanced) All of the above are correct

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All of the above options, braking distance, reaction distance, and perception distance, are elements of the total stopping distance. Drivers need to consider certain factors while driving to ensure they can stop their vehicle safely in any circumstance.

The total stopping distance is the distance a vehicle will travel from the moment a driver perceives a need to stop to the moment the vehicle comes to a complete stop. Perception distance is the distance traveled by a vehicle from the moment a driver perceives the need to stop to the moment the driver applies the brakes.

Reaction distance is the distance the vehicle travels from the moment the driver applies the brakes to the moment the vehicle comes to a complete stop. Braking distance is the distance the vehicle travels while the brakes are applied, from the moment the brakes are applied until the vehicle comes to a complete stop.

In summary, all of the above options are correct because they are all factors that contribute to the total stopping distance. Drivers should be aware of these elements and take them into account when driving to ensure they are able to stop their vehicle safely in any situation.

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Intentional conduct that places a person in fear of immediate bodily harm or offensive contact is the tort of:a. battery b. assaultc. defamation d. duresse. false imprisonment

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The intentional conduct that places a person in fear of immediate bodily harm or offensive contact is the tort of b) assault. Assault occurs when someone intentionally puts another person in reasonable apprehension or fear of imminent bodily harm or offensive contact.

This means that the victim does not need to be physically touched or harmed for an assault to occur; the mere threat of harm or offensive contact is enough.

For example, if someone raises their fist at another person in a threatening manner, that can be considered an assault even if they do not actually strike the person. In contrast, battery requires actual physical contact and offensive contact, such as a harmful or unwanted touching.

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when has an act to infringe our liberties been rejected by parliament?

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An act to infringe our liberties has been rejected by Parliament many times. In 1776, the British Parliament rejected an act that would have allowed American colonies to be taxed without their consent.

In 1791, the British Parliament rejected an act to extend the term of the Prime Minister, which was seen as an infringement of the people’s right to vote. In 1832, Parliament rejected the Reform Act, which would have given the vote to the working class, thus infringing on the rights of the wealthy.

In 1834, Parliament rejected an act that would have allowed the government to detain people without trial, again infringing on civil liberties. In 1836, Parliament rejected an act that would have allowed the government to limit public assembly and freedom of speech, once more infringing on civil liberties.

Finally, in 2018, Parliament rejected the Internal Market bill, which would have allowed the government to breach international law and override parts of the Brexit withdrawal agreement. This act would have infringed on the liberties of people living in Northern Ireland.

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​TRUE/FALSE. A motion for a directed verdict occurs immediately after the last pleading is filed.

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False, A motion for a directed verdict occurs after the plaintiff has presented their case and the defendant can argue that there is no need for the case to continue because the plaintiff has not presented enough evidence to support their claim.

This typically occurs during a trial, not immediately after the last pleading is filed. It is a request for the judge to rule in favor of the moving party because the opposing party has not presented enough evidence to support their claim or has failed to prove an essential element of their case.

The motion does not occur immediately after the last pleading is filed, as it happens during the trial itself.

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If a person intends to act to cause a harmful or offensive contact, he is liable for the tort of:a. assault b. batteryc. defamationd. duresse. false imprisonment

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If a person intends to act to cause a harmful or offensive contact, he is liable for the tort of battery. Battery refers to the intentional touching of another person in a harmful or offensive way without their consent. It is important to note that the intent to cause harm or offense is a crucial element in establishing liability for battery.

Assault, on the other hand, refers to the threat of harmful or offensive contact, but the actual contact need not occur for liability to be established.

Defamation refers to false statements made about another person that harm their reputation, while duress refers to coercion or threats used to force someone to do something against their will. False imprisonment involves the unlawful confinement of a person against their will.

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DD 93 - Record of Emergency Data
- This aper form is only temporary, it does not serve or replace the NAPPERS 1070/602; the info provided on the DD 93 does not post to the Navy database.

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The DD Form 93 is a Department of Defense form used to record emergency contact information and other vital data such as medical information, legal representation, and service members' preference for the disposition of remains.

Service members typically complete this form. It ensures that their emergency contact information is up-to-date and easily accessible during an emergency. While the DD Form 93 is an essential document for service members, it is not intended to replace other personnel records such as the NAPPERS 1070/602.

Additionally, the information on the DD Form 93 may not necessarily be entered into a Navy database, although it may be used to update other records as necessary. It's worth noting that the specific requirements and procedures for completing the DD Form 93 may vary depending on the service branch and individual unit. Service members should consult with their unit's personnel office or command for more information on completing this form.

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In the transfer of a lease from a tenant T to a subtenant T1, there was a covenant whereby T1 "agreed to pay the rents" reserved in the original lease. What rights does L have against T1?

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In a lease transfer from Tenant T to Subtenant T1, where T1 has agreed to pay the rents reserved in the original lease, L (the landlord) has the right to hold T1 responsible for the payment of rent.

The covenant between T1 and L is a direct covenant, which means that L has the right to enforce it against T1. The covenant to pay the rents means that T1 has assumed the obligation to pay rent in the same way that Tenant T was obligated to pay rent under the original lease.

Therefore, L can pursue legal action against T1 to recover unpaid rent, just as L could have pursued legal action against Tenant T if they had failed to pay rent.

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Careless driving could result in1) damage to or loss of a vehicle2) injury or death to you or others.3) suspension or revocation of your driver license 4) All of the above are correct

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Careless driving can result in all of the above outcomes: damage to or loss of a vehicle, injury or death to you or others, and suspension or revocation of your driver's license. It is crucial to practice safe and responsible driving habits to avoid these consequences and ensure the well-being of everyone on the road.

Careless driving can indeed result in all of the mentioned outcomes. Firstly, when a driver is inattentive or reckless, the likelihood of accidents increases, which may lead to damage or loss of a vehicle. Collisions and crashes can cause severe damage to the car and even render it irreparable or totaled.

Secondly, the safety of the driver, passengers, pedestrians, and other road users is compromised when someone drives carelessly. This can lead to injuries or fatalities, which are tragic consequences for all involved. It's important to always prioritize safety when behind the wheel to prevent harm to oneself and others.

Lastly, careless driving can lead to legal consequences, such as the suspension or revocation of your driver's license. Authorities may impose these penalties to deter drivers from engaging in dangerous behavior and to maintain safety on the roads. Losing one's license can be a significant inconvenience and affect various aspects of daily life.

In conclusion, careless driving can result in all of the above outcomes: damage to or loss of a vehicle, injury or death to you or others, and suspension or revocation of your driver's license. It is crucial to practice safe and responsible driving habits to avoid these consequences and ensure the well-being of everyone on the road.

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Example 33. Go back to Example 32 ("to such of A's children as survive to age 25"). Assume that at the time of O 's death A was alive and had three children, the eldest of whom had reached age 25 by the time of O 's death.

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The eldest child's the right to the gift of property is absolute and cannot be taken away. The other two children's right to the gift is dependent on a condition - in this case, surviving to age 25.

A right in property is a legally recognized interest or claim that a person or entity has over a particular property. It refers to a bundle of legally enforceable privileges or entitlements.

The specific rights that a person or entity has in a particular property will depend on the type of interest or claim they hold and the applicable laws and regulations in the relevant jurisdiction.

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The Texas anti-graffiti law is content neutral. This means that the nature or meaning of the markings are irrelevant to whether nor not a violation of the statute has occurred. The content-neutral approach is an effort to avoid allegations that the statute violates the:

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The content-neutral approach prevents claims that the statute violates the First Amendment's protection of freedom of speech. If the law only targeted specific messages or expressions, it could be seen as discriminating against certain viewpoints or content.

The correct answer is First Amendment's protection of freedom of speech.

However, if the Texas anti-graffiti law were to discriminate based on the content of the markings, it would likely be considered unconstitutional under the First Amendment's protection of free speech. This is because the government cannot restrict speech based on its content, except in limited circumstances, such as when the speech is intended to incite violence or is a form of obscenity.

The Texas anti-graffiti law seeks to avoid any potential First Amendment violations by adopting a content-neutral approach. Instead, it focuses on the physical act of defacing property without regard to the content of the markings.

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what is right to be forgotten? question 48 options: european law empowering users to have personal information removed from the internet and disconnected from search engines, such as fcc law empowering users to have personal information removed from the internet and disconnected from search engines, such as ftc law empowering users to have personal information removed from the internet and disconnected from search engines, such as gdpr law empowering users to have personal information removed from the internet and disconnected from search engines, such as

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The right to be forgotten refers to European law empowering users to have personal information removed from the internet and disconnected from search engines.

The "right to be Forgotten" offers customers the capacity to dispose of content material from public view. With a view to avoid appearing in searches on search engines, it gives a person the authority to ask that news articles, videos, or photos be taken down from internet records.

This clause is a part of the general statistics protection regulation (GDPR), which went into effect in may 2018. The law is designed to defend people's personal information with the aid of giving them the option to ask that outdated, wrong, or beside the point facts about themselves be eliminated from on-line sources.

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O conveys Greenacre "to A and her heirs" A's only child, B is a spendthrift and runs up large, unpaid bills. B's Creditors can attach B's property to satisfy their claim. Does B have an interest in Greenacres reachable by creditors?

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Based on the given information,  First, until death, no one was aware of descendants. Second, the words "and his heirs" simply specify the form of transaction.

If no one makes a claim, ownership is subject to a legal principle called escheat. In this instance, it is either withdrawn or returned to the government.

No. The first is that until death, no one has known children. Second, "and his heirs" just indicates the form of transaction in question.No, not until A passes away is B an official heir.

B has no legal interests—she merely has an intention. The sale of the property by A cannot be stopped by B after death.

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give brief information on the 2004 belmarsh case

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The 2004 Belmarsh case, also known as A and others v. Secretary of State for the Home Department, was a landmark legal case in the United Kingdom involving the detention of foreign terrorist suspects without trial or charge.

Following the 9/11 attacks, the UK government introduced the Anti-Terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001, which allowed for the indefinite detention of foreign nationals suspected of involvement in terrorism without trial or charge. In 2002, nine foreign nationals were detained under this law and held in London's high-security Belmarsh prison.

In 2004, the detainees challenged the legality of their detention in the Belmarsh case. The House of Lords heard the case, which was then the UK's highest court. The detainees argued that their detention violated their right to liberty under the European Convention on Human Rights and that the Anti-Terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001 was incompatible with the Human Rights Act 1998, incorporating the European Convention into UK law.

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O conveys "to A for life, then to A's children who reach 25." A is alive and has a child, B, age 26, living at the time of the conveyance. Is the remainder valid? (Contrast this Problem with Example 32 on page 357. Do you see the relevant difference?)

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O conveys "to A for Life, then to A's children who reach 25." A is alive and has a child, B, 26, living at the time of the conveyance. The remainder is invalid.

O conveys "to A for Life, then to A's children who reach 25." A is alive and has a child, B, 26, living at the time of the conveyance. The remainder is invalid because we don't know who will turn 25 first could happen more than 21 yrs after A's death.

Rule Against Perpetuities means no interest is good unless it must vest, if at all, not later than twenty-one years after some life in being at the creation of the interest.

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​TRUE/FALSE. When arbitration is mandatory under a statute, the losing party generally can appeal from such arbitration to a court.

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The statement "When arbitration is mandatory under a statute, the losing party generally can appeal from such arbitration to a court" is false because arbitration is designed to be a binding, cost-effective, and efficient alternative to traditional court litigation.

In cases where arbitration is mandatory under a statute, the losing party generally cannot appeal the arbitration decision to a court. The main reason for this is that arbitration is designed to be a binding, cost-effective, and efficient alternative to traditional court litigation.

By allowing parties to appeal arbitration decisions to courts, this purpose would be undermined, and the arbitration process would lose its efficiency and effectiveness. Arbitration decisions are typically final and binding on the parties involved, and courts are usually reluctant to intervene unless there are specific grounds for doing so.

Some possible grounds for appealing an arbitration decision to a court include:

1. Procedural irregularities: If there were serious procedural issues in the arbitration process, such as fraud or bias, a court might consider reviewing the decision.

2. Arbitrator exceeded their authority: If the arbitrator made a decision outside the scope of their authority, a court might consider reviewing the decision.

3. Violation of public policy: If the arbitration decision violates fundamental principles of justice or public policy, a court might consider reviewing the decision.

However, these grounds for appeal are limited and do not apply in every case. Overall, when arbitration is mandatory under a statute, it is generally not possible for the losing party to appeal the decision to a court.

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give brief overview on judicial appointments commission

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The Judicial Appointments Commission (JAC) is an independent body established in England and Wales to oversee the appointment of judges. It was created under the Constitutional Reform Act 2005 and started operating in 2006.

The JAC is responsible for selecting candidates for judicial office, including appointing judges to the High Court, Court of Appeal, and Supreme Court. It also has a role in appointing some tribunal judges. The Commission comprises a chairman, a deputy chairman, and 14 other members. Its members come from diverse backgrounds and include both lawyers and non-lawyers.

The Commission's role is to ensure that appointments to the judiciary are made on merit, based on an objective assessment of each candidate's qualifications, experience, and personal qualities. The JAC's selection process is designed to be fair, transparent, and inclusive.

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arizona, who ran a red light at an intersection. ellen is seeking 1.5 million in damages. 1. where may ellen bring her suit? 2. discuss the process ellen would have to follow in order to fully litigate her claim. 3. if sara is granted summary judgment at the trial court level, what may ellen do next? explain her options.

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Ellen may bring her suit in the jurisdiction of state court of Arizona, where the accident occurred, or in federal court when is diversity jurisdiction.

Ellen would have to comply to the steps involved in submission of civil lawsuit to the court.  In order to do this, she would need to write a complaint outlining the details of her claim and submit it to the proper court. The complaint would then be served on Sara, and she would have a certain amount of time to reply.

Ellen might have a few options if Sara is given summary judgment at the trial court level. If she thinks the judge erred in awarding summary judgment, she may decide to appeal the ruling to a higher court.

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The tort of emotional distress protects:a. physical wellbeing b. mental healthc. peace of mindd. mental developmente. all these interests are protected by the tort of emotional distress

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The tort of emotional distress primarily protects an individual's mental health and peace of mind. Therefore, options B and C are correct.

The tort of emotional distress is a legal concept that provides individuals with protection against severe emotional harm. It allows them to seek legal recourse if they have suffered emotional distress due to someone else's negligent or intentional conduct.

The primary focus of this tort is to protect an individual's mental health and peace of mind, which are essential components of their overall well-being.

Emotional distress can cause anxiety, depression, trauma, and other psychological conditions that can negatively impact a person's life.

While emotional distress may also affect physical wellbeing and mental development, the primary goal of this tort is to provide legal protection for emotional and psychological harm.

Overall, the tort of emotional distress aims to hold accountable those who cause severe emotional harm to others and provide remedies for the injured party.

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Assume a criminal grabs a student named Emily while she is walking home from class. The criminal tells Emily she will be killed unless she drives a car while the criminal robs a bank. Emily does so but is arrested by the cops shortly after the bank robbery. Emily's best defense is

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Emily's best defense in this scenario would likely be duress or coercion.

Duress or coercion is a legal defense that can be used when a person is forced to commit a crime under the threat of death or serious bodily harm.

In this case, Emily was threatened with death unless she complied with the criminal's demands. She was under duress and had no choice but to drive the car while the criminal robbed the bank.

Emily's actions were not voluntary and were only taken to avoid harm to herself. As such, she may be able to use the defense of duress to argue that she should not be held responsible for the crime.

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The incorporation process (corporate governance) in the United States is currently regulated under state, rather than federal, law. under federal, rather than state, law. under both federal and state law. under local, state, and federal law.

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The incorporation process (corporate governance) in the United States is currently regulated under state, rather than federal, law.

This means that each state has its own set of regulations and requirements for incorporating a business, such as filing articles of incorporation and obtaining a business license.

However, federal laws also come into play, such as tax laws and securities laws, that apply to all corporations regardless of the state in which they are incorporated.

Therefore, while the primary regulation of incorporation is under state law, federal laws also have a significant impact on the incorporation process and corporate governance in the United States.

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The Wagner Act, the Taft-Hartley Act, and the Landrum-Griffin Act are collectively known as theNational Labor Codethe Magna Carta of Labor

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The Wagner Act, the Taft-Hartley Act, and the Landrum-Griffin Act are collectively known as the National Labor Relations Acts (NLRA), and they are often referred to as the "Labor Relations Trilogy" or the "Magna Carta of Labor."

Wagner Act, the Taft-Hartley Act, and the Landrum-Griffin Act together have had a significant impact on labor relations in the United States, shaping the legal framework for unionization, collective bargaining, and labor-management relations. The NLRA and its amendments have provided workers with essential protections and have helped to establish a system of labor relations that seeks to balance the interests of workers, employers, and the public.

The "Magna Carta of Labor" refers to the NLRA as a foundational document in the history of labour relations in the United States, much like the Magna Carta is a foundational document in the history of English law.

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O conveys "to A for life, then to A's widow, if any, for life, then to A's issue then living." Is the gift to A's issue valid?

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O conveys property to A for life, then to A's widow (if any) for life, and finally to A's issue then living. The gift to A's issue is a contingent remainder, as it is dependent on the condition that A has issues who are alive at the time of the widow's death.

Under common law, contingent remainders were subject to the Rule in Shelley's Case and the Doctrine of Worthier Title. However, these rules have been abolished or modified in most jurisdictions. As a result, the gift to A's issue is likely valid, but it depends on the specific jurisdiction and its laws. If the jurisdiction still applies the old common law rules, the gift might not be valid.

In modern law, the gift to A's issue is generally considered valid because it meets the requirement of being contingent upon the happening of a certain event (A's issue being alive when the widow dies). This creates a vested remainder in interest for A's issue, ensuring that the property will pass on to them once the widow's life estate ends.

To summarize, the gift to A's issue is typically valid under modern law, as it meets the criteria for a contingent remainder. However, the validity may be affected by specific jurisdictional laws and any remaining common law rules that could apply.

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What are the three different types of defense attorneys we discussed in class?

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The three types of defense attorneys discussed in class are: public defenders, private defense attorneys, and court-appointed attorneys.

1. Public Defenders: These attorneys are employed by the government to provide legal representation for defendants who cannot afford to hire a private lawyer. They work for a public defender's office and are committed to ensuring that every person receives a fair trial, regardless of their financial situation. Public defenders are licensed attorneys who are skilled in criminal law and handle a high volume of cases.

2. Private Defense Attorneys: These attorneys work in private practice and are hired by defendants who can afford their services. Private defense attorneys often have more time and resources to devote to a case compared to public defenders, which may lead to a more thorough defense. They may specialize in specific areas of criminal law or represent clients in various criminal matters, depending on their practice.

3. Court-Appointed Attorneys: In cases where a defendant cannot afford a private attorney and a public defender is not available, the court may appoint a private attorney to represent the defendant. These court-appointed attorneys are paid by the government but operate independently. They are required to provide the same level of legal representation as any other defense attorney and are responsible for protecting the rights of their clients throughout the legal process.

In summary, the three types of defense attorneys are public defenders, private defense attorneys, and court-appointed attorneys, each playing a crucial role in ensuring that every defendant receives a fair trial and proper legal representation.

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What is the reason why many police and firefighters' unions cannot legally strike?Strikes by these unions might endanger the public's health and safety.Since these workers have access to weapons, strikes can easily escalate into violent confrontations.

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The reason why many police and firefighters' unions cannot legally strike is that strikes by these unions might endanger the public's health and safety as they play a critical role in responding to emergencies and protecting the public during times of crisis.

Any interruption in their services can lead to disastrous consequences, especially in situations where lives are at risk. Additionally, since police and firefighters are often trained and equipped with weapons, strikes can quickly escalate into violent confrontations, further endangering the public and potentially causing significant harm.

As a result, many states and localities have laws prohibiting police and firefighters from striking or engaging in work stoppages. These laws are designed to ensure that essential services are maintained during labour disputes and that the safety and well-being of the public are not put at risk.

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T/F Regular, customary, and ordinary is the definition of reasonably relied upon as employed by Rule 703.

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According to Rule 703, the meaning of reasonably relied upon is regular, customary, and ordinary. This statement is false.

The definition of "reasonably relied upon" as employed by Rule 703 of the Federal Rules of Evidence is broader than just regular, customary, or ordinary reliance. Rule 703 governs the admissibility of expert witness testimony, and it allows an expert to base their opinion on facts or data that are not admissible in evidence if they are of a type reasonably relied upon by experts in the field.

The rule does not define what is considered "reasonably relied upon," but courts have interpreted it broadly. Reliance can be based on a variety of factors, including the expert's own experience and knowledge, as well as sources such as scientific studies, industry standards, and other expert opinions. The key is that the reliance must be reasonable and grounded in the methods commonly used in the expert's field.

Therefore, while regular, customary, and ordinary reliance may be one aspect of what is considered reasonable reliance, it is not the entirety of the definition as used in Rule 703.

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