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Answer: $4,600 was invested in the 8% account and $2,400 was invested in the 7% account.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's break this down into simpler terms so you can understand.

You invested $7000 in a 7% and 8% account (always remember: the 'x' variable is always given to the biggest percentage)

Total of interest: 536 (this always goes at the end of the equation, after the equal sign)

Step 1: Let's set up the equation:

Here are how percents are written: (7% = 0.07, 8% = 0.08, other examples: 50% = 0.50)

0.08x + 0.07(7,000-x)=536

You're adding both because you want to see how much each account paid together.

Step 2: Distribute the 0.07 to everything in the parenthesis

0.08x + 0.07(7,000-x)=536

0.08x + 490 - 0.07x =536

Step 3: Combine like terms

0.08x + 490 - 0.07x =536

0.01x + 490 =536

Step 4: Continue combining like terms

0.01x + 490 =536

0.01x = 46

Step 5: Divide both sides by 0.01 to get the 'x' by itself

0.01x = 46

x = 4,600

This answer, x = 4,600, says to us that $4,600 was invested in the 8% account.

To find out how much was invested in the 7% account, just replace the x = 4,600 back into this part of the original equation: 7,000-x

7,000-x

7,000-4,600

2,400

So.. $4,600 was invested in the 8% account and $2,400 was invested in the 7% account.

Answer:

290

Step-by-step explanation:

To solve this problem you multiply 29 by 100 and then divide the total by 10 as follows:

(29 x 100) / 10

Therefore, you can derive that 10 percent of 290 equals 29.

Note that the answer provided is rounded to the nearest two decimals if necessary.

Answer:

12x+9

Hope you got your answer!

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex] \frac{4 \: hours}{computer} \times \frac{1 \: slot}{ \frac{1}{3} hour } = 12 \: \frac{slots}{computer} [/tex]

Answer:

The First Image

Step-by-step explanation:

A dilation is a type of transformation that enlarges or reduces a figure, therefore in the first Image we see an increase in scale factor of 2.  

Answer:

90x+8202727

Step-by-step explanation:

90x70+8090#* 77

Answer: 10/2

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

its 14

Step-by-step explanation:

because you have 40 bucks then you minus 18 then you divide then u get 14.

Answer:

$14

Step-by-step explanation:

20*2=40

40-12=28

28/2=14

Answer:

4

Step-by-step explanation:

- 14 + 30 / 4

16 / 4

16 ÷ 4

= 4

^-^

Answer:

4

Step-by-step explanation:

-2×7=-14

-2×15=-30

-14--30=16

16÷4=4

there is not enough information to complete the answer

Answer:

100+x=250 or 250-x=100

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex]\displaystyle (fg)(-\frac{1}{5})=0[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given the two functions:

[tex]f(x)=x^2-13\text{ and } g(x)=5x+1[/tex]

And we want to find:

[tex]\displaystyle (fg)(-\frac{1}{5})[/tex]

This is equivalent to:

[tex]\displaystyle =f(-\frac{1}{5})g(-\frac{1}{5})[/tex]

By substitution:

[tex]\displaystyle f(-\frac{1}{5})=(-\frac{1}{5})^2-13=\frac{1}{25}-13=-\frac{324}{25}[/tex]

And:

[tex]\displaystyle g(-\frac{1}{5})=5(-\frac{1}{5})+1=-1+1=0[/tex]

Hence:

[tex]\displaystyle =(-\frac{324}{25})(0)=0[/tex]

Our final answer is:

[tex]\displaystyle (fg)(-\frac{1}{5})=0[/tex]

Answer:

4x = 180

Step-by-step explanation:

angle x = angle y so we can say both angles are 'x + x' or '2x'

angle z = twice angle y (or twice angle x because they're equal) so we can say angle z = 2x

2x + 2x = 180

Answer:

8 multiply 6 =(8 multiply 3)+(8 multiply 3)=4

Answer:

she can buy 5 more

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Kindly check explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

Total Number of pens = 5

Number of defective pens = 2

Number of non-defective pens = 3

A.) number of defective pens selected :

X : {0, 1, 2}

It is possible that no defective pen will be selected ; 1 defective will be chosen or both pens are defective.

2.)

Defective as Success (since selecting a defective pen is the point of interest.

3.)

Since selection is done without replacement

Probability of success per selection is different for each selection ;

Number of defective = 2

Number of observations = 5

P(success on first selection) = 2/5

P(success on second selection) = 1/4

Hence, X is not well approximated by a binomial random variable.

4.) if selection is done with replacement ; then then the probability of success per selection will be the Same for each selection made. Hence, X will be well approximated by a binomial Random variable.

5.) If sampling is done without replacement, then the the hypergeometric function will be a more effective approximation.

Answer:

0.57 inches of rainfall is equivalent to 6 inches of snow

Step-by-step explanation:

The given data are presented here as follows;

[tex]\begin{array}{cc}x&y\\16&1.5\\12&1.3\\18&1.8\\15&1.5\\20&2.1\\23&2.4\\\end{array}[/tex]

The data points are approximately linear

From the the trend line of the plotted points of the graph, created with Microsoft Excel, with Forecasting, when there is 6 inches of snow the rainfall is 0.575 inches

By linear regression, we have;

Y = a + b·X

Where;

[tex]b = \dfrac{n \cdot \sum XY - \left (\sum X \right ) \cdot \left (\sum Y \right )}{n \cdot \sum X^{2} - \left (\sum X \right )^{2}}[/tex]

[tex]a = \dfrac{\sum Y - b \cdot \sum X}{n}[/tex]

∑x = 104

∑y = 10.6

∑(x·y) = 191.7

(∑x)·(∑y) = 1102.4

(∑x)² = 10816

n = 6

SigX^2 = 1878

Plugging in the values, gives;

[tex]b = \dfrac{6 \times191.7 - 1102.4}{6 \times 1878 - 10816} \approx 0.10575[/tex]

[tex]a = \dfrac{10.6 - 0.10575 \times 104}{6} \approx -0.06637[/tex]

Therefore;

Y = 0.10575·x - 0.06637

When x = 6 inches, we have;

Y = 0.10575 × 6 - 0.06637 = 0.56813

Y = 0.56813 inches ≈ 0.57 inches of rainfall

Therefore;

0.57 inches of rainfall is equivalent to 6 inches of snow

Answer:

4

Step-by-step explanation:

That's the answer......

Answer:

2/5 ÷ 1/10 = 4

Hope this helped!

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The solution is, The area of Rhombus B is 9 times bigger than the area of Rhombus A.  The reason is that 2 dimensions were tripled, so x3 x3 = 9 times bigger.

Area is the measure of a region's size on a surface. The area of a plane region or plane area refers to the area of a shape or planar lamina, while surface area refers to the area of an open surface or the boundary of a three-dimensional object.

here, we have,

Rhombus A:

Area = 35 square inches

base = 7 inches

height = 5 inches

Rhombus B:

Area = 315 square inches

base = 21 inches (7 x 3)

height = 15 inches (5 x 3)

A = 21 x 15

so, we get,

The area of Rhombus B is 9 times bigger than the area of Rhombus A.  The reason is that 2 dimensions were tripled, so x3 x3 = 9 times bigger.

To learn more on Area click:

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complete question:

Rhombus A has base of 7 inches and an area of 35 square inches. Rhombus B has a Base and Height that are three times the base and height of Rhombus A. Find the area of Rhombus b and compare it to the area of rhombus A Explain

Answer:

6 less a number y can be represented by the expression 6 - y

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

7 less than the square of the number means a number squared subtracted by 7, which would be D.

Answer:

y=6

standard form

Answer:

5 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

$12 = ($2 per mile) (2 people)

$12 = $2 + $2m (m = mile)

subtract 2 on both sides to eliminate

$12 - $2 = $2 - $2 + 2m

$10 = 2m

divide both sides by 2 to eleminate m

$10 / 2 = 2m / 2

m = 5

Answer:

The next 3 terms from the geometric sequence below.

3

2

,

1

,

0

1

2

,

3

.

Step-by-step explanation:

The next 3 terms of the geometric sequence are [tex]\frac{1}{4} , -\frac{1}{8}, \frac{1}{16}[/tex].

'A geometric sequence is a special type of sequence where the ratio of every two successive terms is a constant. This ratio is known as a common ratio of the geometric sequence.'

According to the given problem,

The terms are, -2 , 1 , - [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] ....

Now, geometric sequence means that there is a common ratio between the numbers in the sequence.

Common ratio can also be denoted as r.

so, from -2, the next term is -2 × r and the one after this is -2 × r × r and so on.

If we compare, -2 × - [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] = 1

                           1 × -[tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] = -[tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex]

                           -[tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] × -[tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{1}{4}[/tex]

                            [tex]\frac{1}{4}[/tex] × -[tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] = -[tex]\frac{1}{8}[/tex]

                           -[tex]\frac{1}{8}[/tex] × -[tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{1}{16}[/tex]

Hence, we can conclude that the next three terms are, [tex]\frac{1}{4}[/tex] , -[tex]\frac{1}{8}[/tex] ,  [tex]\frac{1}{16}[/tex].

Learn more about geometric sequence here:

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x PLATES ... 10

7 CUPS ... 14

Cross multiply and et' violá:

[tex]14x=70\implies x=70/14=5[/tex]

Answer:

honestly I don't know the answer