Help please.... question number 1

Answer:

(m-7[tex])^{2}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:-637

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

62 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

all triangles equal 180 degrees so you would add both angles together then subtract the sum of that by 180

Answer:

[tex]x=62^o[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the addition of all internal angles of a triangle should add up to [tex]180^o[/tex], then, the missing angle can be found by subtracting the two known angles from [tex]180^o[/tex]:

[tex]x=180^o-68.5^o-49.5^o=62^o[/tex]

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

When a polynomial is in standard form, it is arranged in the order of largest power first, followed by the next largest, and then so on. The only polynomial here that follows this rule is the second one, or choice B. Hope this helps!

Answer:

B is the correct answer (Check the explanation below)

Step-by-step explanation:

Probability of boys who do play = 1593/2451 = 0.6499 or 64.99% (if you times by 100 to change to percentage)

Probability of boys who do not play =858/2451 = 0.35 or 35%

Probability of girls who do play = 1361/2996 = 0.4542 or 45.42%

Probability of girls who do not play = 1635/2996 = 0.5457 or 54.57%

Probability of boys and girls who play = 2954/5447 = 0.5423 or 54.23%

Probability of boys and girls who do not play = 2493/5447 =0.4577 or 45.77%

you can see the correct statement is

Probability of girls who do play = 1361/2996 = 0.4542 or 45.42%

total number of girls is 2996 and we found out almost 54% do not play and almost 45% play

Answer:

n = 19/6

Step-by-step explanation:

Formula for C(n,r) = n!/(r!(n-r)!)

C(n,3) = n! /( 3! * (n - 3)!)

Formula for P(n,r) = n!/(n-r)!

P(n,2)= n!/(n-2)!

C(n, 3) = P(n, 2)

n! /( 3! * (n - 3)!) = n!/(n-2)!

[tex]\frac{n!}{3!(n-3)!}= \frac{n!}{(n-2)!}[/tex] cross multiply

n!(n-2)! = n! 3! (n-3)!

(n-3)! = (n-3)(n-2)!

so n!(n-2)! = n! 3! (n-3)! becomes

n!(n-2)! = n! 3! (n-3)(n-2)! divide both sides by n!(n-2)!

1  =6(n-3)

1 =6n -18

19 = 6n

n = 19/6

Answer:

Modal average is the number that appears the most

Modal average: 3

1+2+3+4+5=15

15/3=    Mean: 3

Step-by-step explanation:

add all the bedrooms and divide that sum by the number of numbers added. That's the mean.

Hope this helps.

A) 4 is the mode of the table

B)

1+2+3+4+5=15

15/5=3

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

"78% of P" looks like this in an algebraic expression: .78P

"117% of Q" looks like this: 1.17Q

"...is 23.4 more than [above]" looks like this: [above] + 23.4

Putting that all together in one equation, knowing that the word "is" means "equals":

.78P = 1.17Q + 23.4

From there, we will now use the fact that Q is 40% of P, which looks like this:

Q = .4P

Now, using that substitution:

.78P = 1.17(.4P) + 23.4 and

.78P = .468P + 23.4 and

.312P = 23.4 so

P = 75

Going back up to what Q is equal to, we will sub in the value of P and solve for Q:

Q = .4P and P = 75, therefore,

Q = .4(75) so

Q = 30

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

You have a vertex coordinate and 2 points. In order to write the equation for that parabola, you only need the vertex and one point. We will fill in the following work form of the parabola:

[tex]y=a(x-h)^2+k[/tex] , where h and k are from the vertex and x and y are from the point. Filling in:

[tex]12=a(8-5)^2+3[/tex] and

[tex]12=a(3)^2+3[/tex] and

[tex]12=9a+3[/tex] and

9 = 9a s0

a = 1.

Now we can write the equation, filling in a, the only unknown we had, which we now know is 1:

[tex]y=1(x-5)^2+3[/tex]

Answer:

y =  1 (x +  -5 )2 + 3

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

3.52 m

Step-by-step explanation:

The question is not complete.

Let us assume XY = 1.35 m and YZ = 3.25 m.

If XZ is the longest side of the right-angled triangle (that is the hypotenuse), we can calculate XZ using the Pythagoras theorem.

The Pythagoras theorem state that the square of the hypotenuse side is equal to the sum of the square of the other two sides of the triangle.

That is for Triangle XYZ with XZ as hypotenuse:

XZ² = XY² + YZ²

Substituting:

XZ² = 1.35² + 3.25²

XZ² = 1.8225 + 10.5625

XZ² = 12.385

XZ = √12.385 = 3.5192

XZ = 3.52 m to 2 decimal places

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

answer b

Answer:

Option B

Step-by-step explanation:

Let us consider that these right triangles form a sort of proportion among one another. If that is so, we can list out which sides of one triangle correspond to which side of the other triangle;

[tex]BA and DE,\\AC and EC,\\BC and DC[/tex]

With this being said, it is given that BA = 84, and DE = 7. To prove that the could be proportional, let us form a like fraction;

[tex]DE / BA =\\84 / 7 = \\12\\\\Conclusion, BA = 12 * DE\\Conclusion, Sides Of Triangle DEC = 12 * Sides Of Triangle BAC[/tex]

With that, the length of AC in respect to EC can be represented as such;

[tex]AC = 12 * EC,\\156 - x = 12 * x,\\156 - x = 12x,\\156 = 13x,\\\\x = 12[/tex]

[tex]AC = 156 - x = 156 - 12 = 144[/tex]

Solution - Option B

Answer:

[tex]=-\left(4x+1\right)\left(2x^2+3\right)[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]-8x^3-2x^2-12x-3\\\mathrm{Factor\:out\:common\:term\:}-1\\=-\left(8x^3+2x^2+12x+3\right)\\\mathrm{Factor}\:8x^3+2x^2+12x+3:\quad \left(4x+1\right)\left(2x^2+3\right)\\8x^3+2x^2+12x+3\\=\left(8x^3+2x^2\right)+\left(12x+3\right)\\\mathrm{Factor\:out\:}3\mathrm{\:from\:}12x+3\mathrm{:\quad }3\left(4x+1\right)\\12x+3\\\mathrm{Rewrite\:}12\mathrm{\:as\:}3\cdot \:4\\=3\cdot \:4x+3\\\mathrm{Factor\:out\:common\:term\:}3\\=3\left(4x+1\right)[/tex]

[tex]\mathrm{Factor\:out\:}2x^2\mathrm{\:from\:}8x^3+2x^2\mathrm{:\quad }2x^2\left(4x+1\right)\\8x^3+2x^2\\\mathrm{Apply\:exponent\:rule}:\quad \:a^{b+c}=a^ba^c\\x^3=xx^2\\=8xx^2+2x^2\\\mathrm{Rewrite\:}8\mathrm{\:as\:}2\cdot \:4\\=2\cdot \:4xx^2+2x^2\\\mathrm{Factor\:out\:common\:term\:}2x^2\\=2x^2\left(4x+1\right)\\=3\left(4x+1\right)+2x^2\left(4x+1\right)\\\mathrm{Factor\:out\:common\:term\:}4x+1\\=\left(4x+1\right)\left(2x^2+3\right)\\=-\left(4x+1\right)\left(2x^2+3\right)[/tex]

Answer:

2*2*11

Step-by-step explanation:

44 = 4*11

But 4 isn't prime

  = 2*2*11

All of these are  prime

Answer:

Full drum 80 dollars

one lid missing

earn 10 dollars less

Step-by-step explanation:

We need to find the surface area

SA = 2 pi r^2  + 2 pi rh

The diameter is 2 so the radius = 2/2 =1

SA = 2 * pi * 1^2  + 2 * pi * 1 * 3

      = 2 pi + 6pi

      = 8pi

Using pi = 3.14

SA = 8 *3.14 = 25.12 ft^2

We get 3.18 per ft^2

25.12 * 3.18 =79.88

To the nearest dollar

80 dollars

If one of the lids is missing

SA =  pi r^2  + 2 pi rh

        pi + 6pi

        7 pi

Using pi = 3.14

SA = 7 *3.14 = 21.98 ft^2

We get 3.18 per ft^2

21.98 * 3.18 =69.90

To the nearest dollar

70

The difference is 10 dollars

Answer:

[tex]\Huge \boxed{\mathrm{a) \ \$ \ 80}} \\\\\\\\ \Huge \boxed{\mathrm{b) \ \$ \ 10}}[/tex]

[tex]\rule[225]{225}{2}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Surface area of the cylinder :

2πr² + 2πrh

The diameter is 2 ft, so the radius is 1 ft.

⇒ 2π(1)² + 2π(1)(3)

⇒ 8π ≈ 25.13

$3.18 is getting payed per square foot.

⇒ 25.13 × 3.18

⇒ 79.9221171073 ≈ 80

If the lid was missing:

πr² + 2πrh

π(1)² + 2π(1)(3)

7π ≈ 21.99

$3.18 is getting payed per square foot.

⇒ 21.99 × 3.18

⇒ 69.9318524689 ≈ 70

The difference :

80 - 70 = 10

$10 less if the lid is missing.

[tex]\rule[225]{225}{2}[/tex]

Answer:

7/20

Step-by-step explanation:

He tosses the dime 500 times and it lands on heads 325 times.

There are only two possibilities in a coin toss: Head or tails

This means that it lands on tails:

500 - 325 = 175

The theoretical probability of the dime landing on tails is:

175 / 500 = 7/20

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation: it should be on quizlet here the points go out fast

Answer:

137

Step-by-step explanation:

for the two triangles

formula=1/2×b×h

=1/2×6×4=12

since there are 2 triangles=12×2=24

for the side rectangles

area=l×b

=7×5=35

since there are 2 rectangles=35×2=70

the rectangle in the middle=7×6=42

now add all of them = 25+70+42=137

Step-by-step explanation:

-4 (A)

because the minimum value of f(x) is f(-2)= -3

the range is between {-3,7}

Answer:

A. -4

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: The accumulated amount after 5 years = $ 5352.90

The accumulated amount after 20 years = $ 12828.54

Step-by-step explanation:

Formula to find the accumulated amount after investing P amount at the rate of r ( in decimal) compounded annually for t years:

[tex]A=P(1+r)^t[/tex]

As per given , we have

P =  $4,000

r= 6% = 0.06

Put thsese values in formula : [tex]A=4000(1+0.06)^t=4000(1.06)^t[/tex]

The accumulated amount after 5 years = [tex]A(5)=4000(1.06)^5[/tex]

[tex]=4000(1.3382255776)=5352.9023104\\\\\approx5352.90[/tex]

Hence,  the accumulated amount after 5 years = $ 5352.90

The accumulated amount after 20 years = [tex]A(20)=4000(1.06)^{20}[/tex]

[tex]=4000(3.20713547221)=12828.5418888\\\\\approx12828.54[/tex]

Hence,  the accumulated amount after 20 years = $ 12828.54

Using the compound interest formula, the amount in the bank at the end of 5 years and 20 years would be $5325.90 and $12828.54 respectively

Using the compound interest formula :

After 5 years :

[tex] A = 4000(1 + 0.06)^{5} [/tex]

Amount after 5 years = $5325.90

After 20 years :

[tex] A = 4000(1 + 0.06)^{20}[/tex]

Amount after 5 years = $12828.54

Hence, the amount accumulated after 20 years will be $12828.54

Learn more : https://brainly.com/question/25581049

Answer:

5198.4 grams of sand

Step-by-step explanation:

The bottom cube:

12*12*13= 144*13= 1872

The top pyramid:

144*6= 864

1872+864= 2736 cubic cm

THEN

2736*1.9= 5198.4 g of sand!

Brainliest plsss

Answer:

5.586 kg

Step-by-step explanation:

2940 ×1.9=  5586 kg or 5586 g

Answer:

The distance between their house on the map is 10 inches.

Step-by-step explanation:

In order to calculate the distance from Jeremy's friend house to his we can apply a rule of three in a way that 60 miles is related to "x" inches in the same proportion as "1 1/2" inches is related to 9 miles. Before applying that it'll be for the best if we convert the mixed fraction to a pure fraction as shown below:

[tex]d = 1\frac{1}{2} = 1 + \frac{1}{2} = \frac{2}{2} + \frac{1}{2} = \frac{3}{2}[/tex]

Creating the rule of three:

[tex]\frac{60}{9} \frac{\text{miles}}{\text{miles}} = \frac{x}{\frac{3}{2}} \frac{\text{inches}}{\text{inches}}\\\\9*x = \frac{60*3}{2}\\\\x = \frac{180}{18}\\\\x = 10 \text{ inches}[/tex]

The distance between their house on the map is 10 inches.

Answer:

(C)7b

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the expression:

[tex]\dfrac{7}{3}ab-\dfrac{7}{6}b[/tex]

Let us factor the expression:

[tex]=\dfrac{7b}{3}\left(a-\dfrac{1}{2}\right)[/tex]

Since we need the greatest common factor, we can rewrite the expression as:

[tex]7b\left(\dfrac{1}{3}a-\dfrac{1}{6}\right)[/tex]

Therefore, the greatest common factor is 7b.

The correct option is C.

Answer: C. 7 b

Step-by-step explanation:

Got it right on edge

Answer:

A, all real numbers

Step-by-step explanation:

The domain is the x value and the x value is the domain.

So when you take a look at the x values, it keeps going on and on

So when x values or y values keep going on forever we call that all real numbers

Hope this helps! Plz mark brainliest!

Answer:

Ratio = 4 : 15 or

[tex] \frac{4}{15} [/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Here letters from I to W are written on a separate index card.

I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W

Counting the letters, they are 15 in number.

To find the probability that a letter in the word MILK will be selected on first try, we'll get the following:

Possible event / total number

Since the word MILK contains 4 letters, the probability =

[tex] \frac{4}{15} [/tex]

Therefore, ratio that represents the probability that a letter in the word MILK will be selected on the first try is 4 : 15

Answer:

4x + 10

Step-by-step explanation:

1/2 x 4x =2x

2x + 2x =4x

1/2 x 4 = 2

2 + 8 = 10 Answer: 4x + 10

Answer:

-616

Step-by-step explanation:

First subtract 35 with 21 since 35 is a negative. then subtract 45 with 1

for the first parenthesis would be -14. the second parenthesis would be 44.

then multiply both of the answers together to get -616

Answer:-220

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex]E(x)=-0.2101[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

The expected value for a discrete variable is calculated as:

[tex]E(x)=x_1*p(x_1)+x_2*p(x_2)[/tex]

Where [tex]x_1[/tex] and [tex]x_2[/tex] are the values that the variable can take and [tex]p(x_1)[/tex] and [tex]p(x_2)[/tex] are their respective probabilities.

So, a player can win 2 dollars or looses 1 dollar, it means that [tex]x_1[/tex] is equal to 2 and [tex]x_2[/tex] is equal to -1.

Then, we need to calculated the probability that the player win 2 dollars and the probability that the player loses 1 dollar.

If there are n identical and independent events with a probability p of success and a probability (1-p) of fail, the probability that a events from the n are success are equal to:

[tex]P(a)=nCa*p^a*(1-p)^{n-a}[/tex]

Where [tex]nCa=\frac{n!}{a!(n-a)!}[/tex]

So, in this case, n is number of times that the player tosses a die and p is the probability to get a 6. n is equal to 6 and p is equal to 1/6.

Therefore, the probability  [tex]p(x_1)[/tex] that a player get at least two times number 6, is calculated as:

[tex]p(x_1)=P(x\geq2)=1-P(0)-P(1) \\\\P(0) =6C0*(1/6)^{0}*(5/6)^{6}=0.3349\\P(1)=6C1*(1/6)^{1}*(5/6)^{5}=0.4018\\\\p(x_1)=1-0.3349-0.4018\\p(x_1)=0.2633[/tex]

On the other hand, the probability [tex]p(x_2)[/tex] that a player don't get  at least two times number 6, is calculated as:

[tex]p(x_2)=1-p(x_1)=1-0.2633=0.7367[/tex]

Finally, the expected value of the amount that the player wins is:

[tex]E(x)=x_1*p(x_1)+x_2*p(x_2)\\E(x)=2*(0.2633)+ (-1)*0.7367\\E(x)=-0.2101[/tex]

It means that he can expect to loses 0.2101 dollars.

Answer:

Expected value = -0.2101

Step-by-step explanation :

Givena discrete variable the expected value is given as:

E(x) = xp(x) + yp(y)

Where x and y are the values the variables can assume, and p(x) and p(y) are their respective probabilities.

Probability that a player gets 6 at least twice = p(x ≥ 2) = 1 - p(x≤ 2)

= 1 - p(0) - p(1)

But p(0) = 0.3349

p(1) = 0.4018

p(x ≥ 2) = 1 - 0.3349 - 0.4018

= 0.2633

p(y) = 1 - p(x)

= 1 - 0.2633

= 0.7367

Expected value = 2(0.2633) + (-1)(0.7367)

= -0.2101

A loss of $0.2101 is expected.

Answer:

same time , 12 minutes

Step-by-step explanation:

'A' can eat 1÷6 pizza in 2 minutes

Therefore, 'A' can eat full pizza in 6×2 minutes=12 minutes

'B' can eat 1÷4 pizza in 3 minutes

therefore, 'B' can eat full pizza in 3×4 minutes=12 minutes

So, Both 'A' and 'B' will finish at same time.

Answer:

Colin is wrong

Explanation given below..

Hope it helps!

Step-by-step explanation:

No he's is not correct because the number of pages in January was 30 while the number of pages in March was 20. 20 is not half of 30 and hence it can be concluded that Colin is wrong. For the statement to be correct the number of lates in march should be 30/2 that is equal to 15.

Answer:

We would save $1.52 cents

Step-by-step explanation:

3 the pencil were at sale for 25 cent

1 pencil = 25 cent/3 =8.33 cent per one pencil

5 the pencil were at sale for 29 cent

1 pencil = 29 cent/5 =5.8 cent per one pencil

If we bought 60 pencil in group of 3 for 25 cent

=60/3= 20 pencil

25cents * 20 pencil = 500 cent per 60 pencil

If we bought 60 pencil in group of 5 for 29 cent

=60/5= 12 pencil

29cents * 12 pencil = 348 cent per 60 pencil

From the analysis, the 5 pencil for 29 cent is cheaper are we are going to save: 500-348= 152 cents

Answer:

D. The true answer is D. -2<x<2