Given that AUVW=AXYZ, what is the measure of ZY?
AV
70°
70°
OA. 180°
OB. 40°
O C. 90°
OD. 70°

Answer:

Yes it is what is the question you are answering and it's 90 degree

Answer:

yes line is a tangent to the circle

Step-by-step explanation:

the angle between a tangent and the radius of a circle is 90°

If the triangle is right then the line touching the circle is a tangent.

using the converse of Pythagoras' identity

if the square on the longest side is equal to the sum of the squares on the other 2 sides then the triangle is right

longest side = 65 and 65² = 4225

56² + 33² = 3136 + 1089 = 4225

then the triangle is right and the line touching the circle is a tangent

The measure of the angle θ is 30 degrees, or the magnitude of theta is 30 degrees.

When two lines or rays converge at the same point, the measurement between them is called a "Angle."

We have a diagram shown in the picture.

The measure of an angle is 30 degrees shown.

The triangle is a right-angled triangle

30-60-90

Two parallel lines are shown which are intersected by a transversal.

The adjacent angle is 60 degrees.

The measure of angle θ:

θ = 90 - 60

θ = 30 degrees

Thus, the measure of the angle θ is 30 degrees, or the magnitude of theta is 30 degrees.

Learn more about the angle here:

brainly.com/question/7116550

#SPJ1

The length, width and height of the rectangular prism is ∛10

The volume is given as:

Volume, V = 10m^3

For a minimised volume, we have:

Length = Width = Height

This means that:

V = L^3

So, we have:

L^3 = 10

Take the cube root of both sides

L = ∛10

Hence, the length, width and height of the rectangular prism is ∛10

Read more about volume at:

https://brainly.com/question/1972490

#SPJ1

2. 7/10 ÷ 1/5 = 7/2

7/10 × 5 = 1/2

hope it helps u

Answer:

7 yds  1 ft 1 inch

Step-by-step explanation:

Quick Solve!

Side #1:

144 inches + 24 inches + 7 inches = 175 inches

Side #2:

72 inches + 18 inches = 90 inches + 6 inches = 96 inches

Conclusion:

175 inches + 96 inches = 271 inches

Answer:

⇒ 7 yds  1 ft 1 inch

Answer:

7 yards 1 foot 1 inch

Step-by-step explanation:

Adding both of them together, you get:

6 yards 3 feet 13 inches

Since 1 foot = 12 inches, and 13 inches exceeds that, add a foot to the previous 3 feet and subtract 12 from the 13 inches

Therefore: 6 yards 4 feet 1 inch

Since 1 yard = 3 feet, and 4 feet exceeds that, add a yard to the previous 6 yards and subtract 3 feet from the remaining 4 feet

Hence:

7 yards 1 foot 1 inch

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

19.25(miles?)

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming 3.5 is the x value or input of the function

3.5 x 5.5 = 19.25

Answer:

27

depth ×breadth×width=3×3×3

= 27

An expression is defined as a set of numbers, variables, and mathematical operations. There are a total of 10 benches in the class.

In mathematics, an expression is defined as a set of numbers, variables, and mathematical operations formed according to rules dependent on the context.

Let the total number of benches be represented by x. If students sit 3 per bench, we are short 3 benches. Therefore, the total number of students can be written as,

Total number of students = 3x + 9

If they sit 5 per bench, 2 benches are left empty, and one bench only has 4 students.

Total number of students = 5(x-1) - 10 +4

Now, the total number of students can be written as,

3x + 9 = 5(x-1) - 10 +4

3x + 9 = 5x - 11

20 = 2x

x = 10

Hence, there are a total of 10 benches in the class.

Learn more about Expression:

https://brainly.com/question/13947055

#SPJ1

Answer:

15/100*1800=15*1800/100=15*18=270

Step-by-step explanation:

1800-270=1530 therefore answer is 1530

The mole ratio of hydrogen to ammonia will be 3:2.

A depiction of a chemical reaction using elements' indicators to determine how much of each source and result is present-typically in moles.

The chemical equation is given below.

N₂ + 3H₂ = 2NH₃

Then the mole ratio of hydrogen to ammonia will be 3:2.

More about the chemical equation link is given below.

https://brainly.com/question/12047033

#SPJ1

Answer:

This is the answer to your question

The reduction in price that will be applied is $200.

From the given information, the price function will be:

P - 680/(680 - 660) = (Q - 70)/(70 - 75)

P = -4Q + 960

Revenue will be:

= Price × Quantity

= (-4Q + 960)Q

= 4Q² + 960Q

Differentiating this will be Q = 120

Price will be:

= (-4 × 120) + 960

= 480

The reduced price will be:

= 680 - 480

= 200

The maximum revenue will be:

= 480 × 120

= 57600

Learn more about price on:

brainly.com/question/1153322

#SPJ1

Answer:

2/5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

B)20

Step-by-step explanation:

convert 900in to ft=75

1500/75=20boxes

Answer:

Please see the question below.

Step-by-step explanation:

In the expression "[4 x 3⁵ - 9 x (-7)]" I'm unclear if the "x" is a multiplication sign, or the variable x.  I'll assume it is the variable x in my answer.

4 x 3⁵ = 972x

- 9 x (-7) = 63x

3³ (-4² +2²)  = 27 (20) = 540

-11 = -11

========

Putting it all together:

972x + 63x + 540 -11

1035x + 529

The exponential model best represents the data is B. f(x) = 5(0.2)^x

From the table of values, we have the following points:

(x, y) = (0,5) and (1,1)

An exponential model is represented as:

y = ab^x

Substitute (x, y) = (0,5)

5 = ab^0

5 = a

This gives

a = 5

So, we have:

y = 5b^x

Substitute (x, y) = (1,1)

1 = 5b^1

This gives

5b = 1

Divide by 5

b = 0.2

Substitute b = 0.2 in y = 5b^x

y = 5(0.2)^x

Hence, the exponential model best represents the data is B. f(x) = 5(0.2)^x

Read more about exponential model at:

https://brainly.com/question/2456547

#SPJ1

Answer:

x=60

Step-by-step explanation:

x+2x=3x

180/3=60(interior angles add up to 180)

A transversal is a straight line that intersects two parallel lines forming four angles at each point of intersection. Thus the required answers to the given question are:

i. Side NM is parallel to side XZ.

ii. Using the corresponding property

iii. <XYZ is congruent to <NYM

iv. ΔXYZ is similar toΔNYM by SAS theorem

Two or more angles are said to be congruent if and only if they have equal measure. This property can be used to relate equal angles.

While a transversal is a straight line that intersects two parallel lines forming four angles at each point of the intersection.

The required answers to the question are as stated below:

i. Side NM is parallel to side XZ.

ii. The corresponding property

iii. <XYZ is congruent to <NYM

iv. ΔXYZ is similar toΔNYM by SAS theorem

For more clarifications on congruent angles of plane shapes, visit: https://brainly.com/question/3717644

#SPJ1

Answer: For the first box it is parallel, for the second box it is the corresponding angles theorem, the third is NYM, and the last one is AA.

Step-by-step explanation: 1.) Since line NM has an arrow on it's line and XZ has an arrow on it's line, that means that those two line are parallel to each other. 2.) Since both triangle contain the same transversal line (NY) and the corresponding angles theorem states that if a transversal intersects parallel lines, the corresponding angles are congruent. From this we can conclude that this means that the angle <YXZ has is congruent to the angle <YNM. Therefore we use the corresponding angles theorem. 3.) Answer 2 basically answers box number three but since we concluded that Angles of <YXZ and <YNM are both congruent <NYM would be your answer its just flipped. 4.) We use the AA theorem, because the AA theorem states that if an angle or angle(s) of one triangle is congruent to another angle/angle(s) of another triangle, then the triangles are similar (congruent). Therefore we would use the AA theorem.

Hope this helps :)

By the way this is the answer for EDGE in 2023

Answer:

16hr

Step-by-step explanation:

distance= time x speed

250mi/min=250x60mi/hr =15000mi/hr

239000/15000≈15.9333hr

Round up to 16hr

Answer:

A, C, D, E, F

Answer:

Zero Slope

Step-by-step explanation:

Horizontal lines like line L have ZERO SLOPE

Answer:

1,530

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

40

Step-by-step explanation:

the formula for area of a parallelogram is a = bh

you know area (a) = 160 and height (h) = 4, so:

160 = 4 * b

divide both sides of this equation by 4,

b = 40

the base is 40 meters long

The amount of the money borrowed is 864.941

So the amount of money over time can be given with an exponential function y=a(b)^x or more specifically y=a(1+r)^x   where r is the growth rate (interest rate)

So the equation can be written as

m=(1.04)^t

   Where m represents the amount of money over time, P represents the principal amount, and t represents time in years. Since we're given the amount of interest paid and not the total amount which includes the initial amount borrowed you have to subtract P from the equation. This will give us the equation that we'll use to find the initial amount

[tex]I=P(1.04)^t-P[/tex] where I represent the interest paid.

plug the values into the equation

[tex]108=P(1.04)^3-P\\P=864.941[/tex]

Therefore the amount of the money borrowed is 864.941.

To learn more about the borrowed money visit:

https://brainly.com/question/25895372

#SPJ1

Answer: a

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]a^{2}=a \cdot a\\a^{2}+ab=a(a+b)[/tex]

Therefore, the HCF is a.

Answer:

a

Step-by-step explanation:

Factorizing both terms :

The HCF of the terms is a.

The steps are shown below: -5<x<1

A statement of an order relationship—greater than, greater than or equal to, less than, or less than or equal to—between two numbers or algebraic expressions.

Given:

|x +2 | <-3

If we take the module is positive,

x+2 -2 < -3-2

x < -5

If we take the module is negative,

-( x+2)  < -3

-x -2 < -3

-x -2 +2 < -3 +2

-x< -1

x>1

Combining the inequalities,

-5<x<1

Learn more about inequality here:

https://brainly.com/question/18521356

#SPJ1

Answer: Answer below.

Step-by-step explanation: If x is pi, and y is 1/pi, then multiplying x by y is 1; yes. So, for y, 1 is being divided by pi. The opposite of division is multiplication. If you multiply 1/pi by pi, the pi in the denominator cancels. Just how if it is 5x = 10, dividing by 5 cancels it on the left side, and gets you x = 2.

This is general for everything. If you multiply 2 by 1/2, you get 1. This is because dividing is also like multiplying by its reciprocal. 1/2's reciprocal is 2/1, and multiplying leaves you with 1. Go and use a calculator, it's correct. Actually, any problem a/b × b/a = 1.

Answer:

[tex]\boxed {54^{o}}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

By Inscribed Angle Theorem, the value of an inscribed angle enclosed by an arc is the half the value of that arc.

⇒ ∠RPQ = 108°/2

⇒ ∠RPQ = 54°

All the parts shown in the figure are solved.

A mathematical technique that is used to determine the possible arrangement of the objects when the sequence of selection does not matter.

Part 1

(a) When two dices are rolled the basic outcomes will be =?

Each dice has 6 outcomes and therefore 6* 6 =36

Therefore total 36 basic outcomes.

(b) Yes both the events are equally likely .

Part 2

(a) There can be 11 types of sum from 2 -12 obtained when two dices are rolled

Sum

2 1+1                                                  

3 1+2, 2+1                                          

4 1+3, 2+2, 3+1                                  

5 1+4, 2+3, 3+2, 4+1                            

6 1+5, 2+4, 3+3, 4+2, 5+1                    

7 1+6, 2+5, 3+4, 4+3, 5+2, 6+1          

8 2+6, 3+5, 4+4, 5+3, 6+2          

9 3+6, 4+5, 5+4, 6+3                          

10 4+6, 5+5, 6+4                                  

11 5+6, 6+5                                          

12 6+6    

(b) They are not equally likely as the sum obtained is dependent on both the dice rolling.

To know more about Combination

https://brainly.com/question/19692242

#SPJ1