Explain the process of energy conversion by describing how energy was converted from the windmill design brief. Discuss the different forms of energy and what technology was used to convert the energy from one form to another.

Answer:

(a) 6.36 mg/L

(b) 5.60 mg/L

Explanation:

(a)

Using the formula below to find the required ultimate BOD of the mixture.

[tex]L_o = \dfrac{Q_wL_w+ Q_rL_r}{Q_W+Q_r}[/tex]

where;

Q_w = volumetric flow rate wastewater

Q_r = volumetric flow rate of the river just upstream of the discharge point

L_w = ultimate BOD of wastewater

Replacing the given values:

[tex]L_o = \dfrac{(1 \ m^3/L ) (40 \ mg/L) + (10 \ m^3/L) (3 \mg/L)}{(1m^3/L) +(10 \ m^3/L)} \\ \\ L_o = 6.36 \ mg/L[/tex]

(b)

The Ultimate BOD is estimated as follows:

Recall that:

[tex]time(t) = \dfrac{distance }{speed}[/tex]

replacing;

distance with 10000 m and speed with [tex]\dfrac{11 \ m^3/s}{55 \ m^2}[/tex]

[tex]time =\dfrac{10000 \ m}{\Bigg(\dfrac{11 \ m^3/s}{55 \ m^2}\Bigg)}\Bigg(\dfrac{1 \ hr}{3600 \ s}\Bigg) \Bigg(\dfrac{1 \ day}{24 hr}\Bigg)[/tex]

time (t) = 0.578 days

Finally; [tex]L_t = L_oe^{-kt}[/tex]

here;

k = rate of coefficient reaction

[tex]L_ t= (6.36) \times e^{-(0.22/day)(0.5758 \ days)}\\ \\ \mathbf{L_t =5.60 \ mg/L}[/tex]

Thus, the ultimate BOD = 5.60 mg/L

Answer:

[tex]\mathbf{C_{10} = 137.611 \ kN}[/tex]

Explanation:

From the information given:

Life requirement = 40 kh = 40 [tex]40 \times 10^{3} \ h[/tex]

Speed (N) = 520 rev/min

Reliability goal [tex](R_D)[/tex] = 0.9

Radial load [tex](F_D)[/tex] = 2600 lbf

To find C10 value by using the formula:

[tex]C_{10}=F_D\times \pmatrix \dfrac{x_D}{x_o +(\theta-x_o) \bigg(In(\dfrac{1}{R_o}) \bigg)^{\dfrac{1}{b}}} \end {pmatrix} ^{^{^{\dfrac{1}{a}}[/tex]

where;

[tex]x_D = \text{bearing life in million revolution} \\ \\ x_D = \dfrac{60 \times L_h \times N}{10^6} \\ \\ x_D = \dfrac{60 \times 40 \times 10^3 \times 520}{10^6}\\ \\ x_D = 1248 \text{ million revolutions}[/tex]

[tex]\text{The cyclindrical roller bearing (a)}= \dfrac{10}{3}[/tex]

The Weibull parameters include:

[tex]x_o = 0.02[/tex]

[tex](\theta - x_o) = 4.439[/tex]

[tex]b= 1.483[/tex]

∴

Using the above formula:

[tex]C_{10}=1.4\times 2600 \times \pmatrix \dfrac{1248}{0.02+(4.439) \bigg(In(\dfrac{1}{0.9}) \bigg)^{\dfrac{1}{1.483}}} \end {pmatrix} ^{^{^{\dfrac{1}{\dfrac{10}{3}}}[/tex]

[tex]C_{10}=3640 \times \pmatrix \dfrac{1248}{0.02+(4.439) \bigg(In(\dfrac{1}{0.9}) \bigg)^{\dfrac{1}{1.483}}} \end {pmatrix} ^{^{^{\dfrac{3}{10}}[/tex]

[tex]C_{10} = 3640 \times \bigg[\dfrac{1248}{0.9933481582}\bigg]^{\dfrac{3}{10}}[/tex]

[tex]C_{10} = 30962.449 \ lbf[/tex]

Recall that:

1 kN = 225 lbf

∴

[tex]C_{10} = \dfrac{30962.449}{225}[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{C_{10} = 137.611 \ kN}[/tex]

Answer:

3.42 kW

Explanation:

calculate the mass flow rate of the water = density * velocity * area

= 13.3 kg/s

where Area of pipe  =  π/4 * d^2 =  π/4 * 0.075^2 m  =  0.0044 m^2

given that : 1 Kg = 1 N s^2 / m,      1 Watt = 1 N m /s

calculate : power produced by discharge pipe

Discharge Pressure x Volume flow =

Pressure  * Area * velocity

P  * 0.0044 * 3  = 2253 N m /s

calculate: power due the mass of water  

mass of water * 2  = 258 N m/s

where:  mass of water = density * volume

Calculate power produced due the velocity of exiting water

= m * V2/2 = 59.4 N m/s

hence The  power added to fluid = 2253 watts

power added to the fluid by pump = 2253 / 0.75 = 3.42 kW

Answer:

A) 1040 steel is not a possible candidate for this application

B) 35.94%

Explanation:

Initial length = 100 mm =  0.1 m

Initial diameter ( d ) = 7.5 mm = 0.0075 m

Tensile load ( p ) = 18,000 N

Condition : The 1040 steel must not experience plastic deformation or a diameter reduction of more than 1.5 * 10^-5 m

A) would the 1040 steel be a possible candidate for this application

Yield strength of 1040 steel < stress  ( in order to be a possible candidate )

stress = p / A0 = ( 18000 ) / ( [tex]\frac{\pi }{4}[/tex] ) * 0.0075^2

                      = 18,000 / (4.418 * 10^-5 )   =  407.424 MPa

Yield strength of 1040 steel = 450 MPa

stress = 407.424 MPa

∴ Yield strength ( 450 MPa ) > stress ( 407.424 MPa )  

Therefore 1040 steel is not a possible candidate for this application

B) Determine How much cold work would be required to reduce the diameter of the steel to 6.0 mm

Area1 = ( [tex]\frac{\pi }{4}[/tex] ) ( 0.006 )^2 = 2.83 * 10^-5 m^2

therefore % of cold work done = ( A0 - A1 ) / A0  * 100 = 35.94%

Technicians A is correct in the given scenario. The correct option is C.

Exhaust gas is a byproduct of combustion that exits the tailpipe of an internal combustion engine.

It consists of a gas mixture that includes carbon dioxide (CO2), carbon monoxide (CO), nitrogen oxides (NOx), hydrocarbons (HC), and particulate matter (PM).

Technician B is mistaken. CO2 levels in the exhaust should be less than 15%, preferably between 13% and 14.5% for petrol engines and 11% to 13% for diesel engines.

High CO2 levels can actually indicate inefficient engine operation, as it means that not all of the fuel in the engine is being burned and is being wasted as exhaust.

Thus, C is the correct answer. A technician is correct.

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Answer:

surface temp of fuel rod = 678.85 K

Explanation:

Given data :

D1 = 25 mm

D2 = 50 mm

T2 = 335 k

T∞ = 300 k

hconv = 0.15 w/m^2.k

ε2 = 0.05

ε1 = 1

Determine energy at Q23

Q23 = Qconv + Qrad

attached below is the detailed solution

Insert given values into equation 1 attached below to obtain the surface temperature of the fuel rod ( T1 )

Answer:

true

Explanation:

true An electromagnet is formed when a coil of wire wrapped around an iron core is hooked up to a dry cell battery. The current traveling through the wire sets up a magnetic field around the wire. TRUE or FALSE

Answer:

C. throttle

Explanation:

see the picture hope this helps someone

Answer:

a) the power loss due to irreversible head loss is 4.57 kW

b) the efficiency of the piping is 95%

c) the electric power output is 72.9918 kW

Explanation:

Given the data in the question below;

Irreversible loses [tex]h_L[/tex] = 7m

Total head, H = 140 m

flow rate Q = 4000 L/min = 0.0666 m³/s

Generator efficiency n₀ = 84% = 0.84

we know that density of water is 1000 kg/m³

g = 9.81 m/s²

a) power loss due to irreversible head loss [tex]P_L[/tex] is;    

[tex]P_L[/tex] = p × Q × g × [tex]h_L[/tex]

we substitute

[tex]P_L[/tex] = 1000 × 0.0666 × 9.81 × 7

[tex]P_L[/tex] = 4573.422 W

[tex]P_L[/tex] = 4573.422 / 1000

[tex]P_L[/tex] = 4.57 kW

Therefore, the power loss due to irreversible head loss is 4.57 kW

b) the efficiency of the piping n is;

n = (Actual head / maximum head) × 100

n = (( H - [tex]h_L[/tex] ) / H) × 100

so we substitute

n = (( 140 - 7 ) / 140) × 100

n = (133/140) × 100

n = 0.95 × 100

n = 95%

Therefore, the efficiency of the piping is 95%

c) the electric power output if the turbine-generator efficiency is 84 percent;

n₀ = [tex]Power_{outpu[/tex] / [tex]power_{inpu[/tex]

[tex]Power_{outpu[/tex] = n₀ × [tex]power_{inpu[/tex]

[tex]Power_{outpu[/tex] = n₀ × ( pQg( H - [tex]h_L[/tex] ))

so we substitute

[tex]Power_{outpu[/tex] = 0.84 × ( 1000 × 0.0666 × 9.81( 140 - 7 ))

[tex]Power_{outpu[/tex] = 0.84 × 653.346( 133)

[tex]Power_{outpu[/tex] = 0.84 × 86895.018

[tex]Power_{outpu[/tex] = 72991.815 W

[tex]Power_{outpu[/tex] = 72991.815 / 1000

[tex]Power_{outpu[/tex] = 72.9918 kW

Therefore, the electric power output is 72.9918 kW

Answer:

15625 moles of methane is present in this gas  deposit

Explanation:

As we know,

PV = nRT

P = Pressure = 230 psia = 1585.79 kPA

V = Volume = 980 cuft = 27750.5 Liters

n = number of moles

R = ideal gas constant = 8.315

T = Temperature = 150°F = 338.706 Kelvin

Substituting the given values, we get -

1585.79 kPA * 27750.5 Liters = n * 8.315 * 338.706 Kelvin

n = (1585.79*27750.5)/(8.315 * 338.706) = 15625

Answer:

Wmax =  750 kw  < power developed ( 1000kw ) for a reversible    the cycle is Impossible

Explanation:

Hot reservoir Temperature = 1000 K

Cold reservoir Temperature = 500 K

Heat transfer ( energy received by Hot reservoir ) ( Q ) = 1500 kW

Heat transfer ( energy received by Cold reservoir via Hot reservoir ) = 1000 Kw

Calculate the rate of entropy production

The higher the entropy production the less efficient the system

Δs = Cp In ( T2 / T1 )

power developed = 1000 kW

considering that the cycle is reversible and the constant volume or constant pressure of the substance in the thermodynamic cycle is not given we will use the efficiency to determine if the cycle is possible or not

Л = efficiency

∴Л = 1 - T2 / T1 = 1 - ( 500 / 1000 ) = 0.5

note as well that;  Л = work output / work input = Wmax / Q

                                  = 0.5 = Wmax / Q

∴ rate of entropy production = Q ( 0.5 ) = 1500 * 0.5 = 750 kw

Given that Wmax =  750 kw  < power developed ( 1000kw ) for a reversible    the cycle is Impossible

Answer:

what?????

Explanation:

Here are the eight stages of the recruitment process and what Garth might expect to occur or carry out at each stage in the explanation part.

The process of identifying, attracting, and selecting qualified candidates for a job opening in an organisation is known as recruitment.

Here are the eight stages of the recruitment process, as well as what Garth might expect to happen or do at each stage:

Thus, these are the stages of recruitment.

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Answer:

a. 41

b. i. 15 mA ii. 625 mA

c. 192 Ω

Explanation:

Here is the complete question

A high-voltage discharge tube is often used to study atomic spectra. The tubes require a large voltage across their terminals to operate. To get the large voltage, a step-up transformer is connected to a line voltage (120 V rms) and is designed to provide 5000 V (rms) to the discharge tube and to dissipate 75.0 W. (a) What is the ratio of the number of turns in the secondary to the number of turns in the primary? (b) What are the rms currents in the primary and secondary coils of the transformer? (c) What is the effective resistance that the 120-V source is subjected to?

Solution

(a) What is the ratio of the number of turns in the secondary to the number of turns in the primary?

For a transformer N₂/N₁ = V₂/V₁

where N₁ = number of turns of primary coil, N₂ =number of coil of secondary, V₁ = voltage of primary coil = 120 V and V₂ = voltage of secondary coil = 5000 V

So,  N₂/N₁ = V₂/V₁

N₂/N₁ = 5000 V/120 V = 41.6 ≅ 41 (rounded down because we cannot have a decimal number of turns)

(b) What are the rms currents in the primary and secondary coils of the transformer?

i. The rms current in the secondary

We need to find the current in the secondary from

P = IV where P = power dissipated in secondary coil = 75.0 W, I =rms current in secondary coil and V = rms voltage in secondary coil = 5000 V

P = IV

I = P/V = 75.0 W/5000 V = 15 × 10⁻³ A = 15 mA

ii. The rms current in the primary

Since N₂/N₁ = V₂/V₁ = I₁/I₂

where N₁ = number of turns of primary coil, N₂ =number of coil of secondary, V₁ = voltage of primary coil = 120 V, V₂ = voltage of secondary coil = 5000 V, I₁ = current in primary coil and I₂ = current in secondary coil = 15 mA

So, V₂/V₁ = I₁/I₂

V₂I₂/V₁ = I₁

I₁ = V₂I₂/V₁

= P/V₁

= 75.0 W/120 V

= 0.625 A

= 625 mA

(c) What is the effective resistance that the 120-V source is subjected to?

Using V = IR where V =  voltage = 120 V, I = current in primary = 0.625 A and R = resistance of primary coil

R = V/I

= 120 V/0.625 A

= 192 V/A

= 192 Ω

Answer:

the disadvantages can be people's thoughts about them and also a rival resort nearby which looks more posh pls mark brainliest i need 5 more for next rank thank you

Explanation:

Answer:

False ( B )

Explanation:

considering that the wind turbine is a horizontal axis turbine

Power generated/extracted by the turbine can be calculated as

P =  n * 1/2 * p *Av^3

where: n = turbine efficiency

           p = air density

           A = πd^2 / 4

           v =  speed

From the above equation it can seen that increasing the Blade radius by 10% will increase the Blade Area which will in turn increase the value of the power extracted by the wind turbine

Answer:

  (√6)/3 ≈ 0.8165

Explanation:

The RMS value is the square root of the mean of the square of the waveform over one period. It will be ...

  [tex]\displaystyle\sqrt{\frac{1}{T}\left(\int_{\frac{T}{4}}^{\frac{3T}{4}}{1^2}\,dt+\int_{\frac{3t}{4}}^{\frac{5t}{4}}{(\frac{-4}{T}}(t-T))^2\,dt\right)}=\sqrt{\frac{1}{T}\left(\frac{T}{2}+\left.\frac{16}{T^2}\cdot\frac{1}{3}(t-T)^3\right|_{\frac{3t}{4}}^{\frac{5t}{4}}\right)}\\\\=\sqrt{\frac{1}{T}\left(\frac{T}{2}+\frac{T}{6}\right)}=\sqrt{\frac{2}{3}}=\boxed{\frac{\sqrt{6}}{3}\approx0.8165}[/tex]

Answer:

Option A is the correct answer. The bus traveled at 50 mph for 20 minutes

Explanation:

The complete question is

Which of the following choices best describes velocity of a bus traveling along its route? A. The bus traveled at 50 mph for 20 minutes. B. The airplane traveled southwest at 280 mph. C. The car went from 35 mph to 45 mph. D. The train made several stops, with an average rate of 57 mph.

Solution

In option A the bus is travelling at a speed of 50 miles per hour. This describes the velocity of bus along its route.

The other options are about the velocity of airplane, car and train

Answer:

a)  927 MPa

b)The specimen will experience fracture

Explanation:

a) Calculate critical stress for brittle fracture

σ = fracture toughness / (y √ π * surface crack)

  = 45  /  ( 1  [tex]\sqrt{\pi * ( 0.75*10^-3)}[/tex]  )

  = 927 MPa

b) since critical stress( 927 MPa)  < 1000 MPa

hence : The fracture will occur

This question is not complete, the complete question is;

A thin-walled pressure vessel 6-cm thick originally contained a small semicircular flaw (radius 0.50-cm) located at the inner surface and oriented normal to the hoop stress direction. Repeated pressure cycling enabled the crack to grow larger. If the fracture toughness of the material is [tex]88 Mpam^\frac{1}{2}[/tex] , the yield strength equal to 1250 MPa, and the hoop stress equal to 300 MPa, would the vessel leak before it ruptured

Answer:

length of crack is 5.585 cm

we will observe that, the length of crack (5.585 cm) is less than the vessel thickness (6 cm) Hence, vessel will not leak before it ruptures

Explanation:

Given the data in the question;

vessel thickness = 6 cm

fracture toughness k = [tex]88 Mpam^\frac{1}{2}[/tex]

yield strength = 1250 MPa

hoop stress equal = 300 MPa

we know that, the relation between fracture toughness and crack length is expressed as;

k = (1.1)(2/π)(r√(πa))  

where k is the fracture toughness, r is hoop stress and a is length of crack

so we rearrange to find  length of crack

a = 1/π[( k / 1.1(r)(2/π)]²

a = 1/π[( kπ / 1.1(r)(2)]²

so we substitute  

a = 1/π [( 88π / 1.1(300)(2/π)]²    

a = 1/π[ 0.1754596 ]

a = 0.05585 m

a = 0.05585 × 100 cm

a = 5.585 cm  

so, length of crack is 5.585 cm

we will observe that, the length of crack (5.585 cm) is less than the vessel thickness (6 cm) Hence, vessel will not leak before it ruptures

Solution :

Given :

Velocity, [tex]$V_1 =100$[/tex] cm/sec

Pressure,  [tex]$P_1 = 120 $[/tex] mm Hg

Then, [tex]$P_1 = \rho_1 g h$[/tex]

[tex]$P_1 = 0.120 \times 13.6 \times 1000 \times 9.81$[/tex]

    = 16.0092 kPa

[tex]$P_2 = 110 $[/tex] mm Hg

[tex]$P_2 = \rho_2 g h$[/tex]

    [tex]$= 0.110 \times 13.6 \times 1000 \times 9.81$[/tex]

    = 14.675 kPa

Then blood is incompressible,

[tex]$A_1v_1=A_2v_2$[/tex]

[tex]$\frac{\pi}{4}(25)^2\times 100=\frac{\pi}{4}(21)^2\times v_2$[/tex]

[tex]$v_2=141.72 \ cm/s$[/tex]

Then the linear momentum conservation fluid :

(Blood ) in y - direction

[tex]$P_1A_1+ P_2A_2-F_g = m_2v_2-m_1v_1$[/tex]

[tex]$m_1=m_2=P_1A_1v_1$[/tex]

              [tex]$=1.50 \times \frac{\pi}{4}\times (0.025)^2 \times 1.00$[/tex]

              = 0.515 kg/ sec

Then the linear conservation of momentum of blood in y direction.

[tex]$P_1A_1+ P_2A_2-F_g = m_2v_2-m_1v_1$[/tex]

[tex]$16.0092 \times 1000 \times \frac{\pi}{4} \times (0.025)^2+14.675 \times 1000\times \frac{\pi}{4}\times (0.021)^2$[/tex]

[tex]$-F_y=0.515(-1.4172-1)$[/tex]

7.858+5.0828- Fy = 0.515(-2.4172)

Fy = 14.1856 N

Answer:

A

Explanation:

Actually I don't know anything about American history, I chose it because South Africa is not in the least

Answer:

hello your question has some missing values below are the missing values

Mirror Radius (mm) Bending Failure Stress (MPa)

.603                                         225

.203                                         368

.162                                          442

answer : 191 mPa

Explanation:

Determine the stress present at the time of fracture for the original plate

Bending stress ∝ 1 / ( mirror radius )^n ------ ( 1 )

at 0.603  bending stress = 225

at 0.203  bending stress = 368

at 0.162  bending stress = 442

applying equation 1   determine the value of n for several combinations

 ( 225 / 368 ) = ( 0.203 / 0.603 )^n

hence : n = 0.452

also

 ( 368/442 ) = ( 0.162 / 0.203 ) ^n

hence : n = 0.821

also

( 225 / 442 ) = ( 0.162 / 0.603 ) ^n

hence : n = 0.514

Next determine the average value of n

n ( mean value ) =  ( 0.452 + 0.821 + 0.514 ) / 3 = 0.596

Calculate estimated stress present at the time of fracture for the original plate

= bending stress at x =  0.796 / bending stress at x = 0.603

= x / 225 = ( 0.603 / 0.796 ) ^ 0.596

therefore X ( stress present at the time of fracture of original plate )

     = 225 * 0.84747

     =  191 mPa

Answer:

shear strength = 2682.31 Ib/ft^2

Explanation:

major principal stress = 100 Ib / in2

minor principal stress = 20 Ib/in2

Normal stress = 3000 Ib/ft2

Determine the shear strength when direct shear test is performed

To resolve this we will apply the coulomb failure criteria relationship between major and minor principal stress a

for direct shear test

use Mohr Coulomb criteria relation between normal stress and shear stress

Shear strength when normal strength is 3000 Ib/ft  = 2682.31 Ib/ft^2

attached below is the detailed solution

Explanation:

When a problem is discovered in the system design or manufacturing process, it generally gets reported to all concerned (if the company has an appropriate culture). Depending on the nature of the problem, a "quick fix" may be found by the discoverer, or by someone to whom the discovery is reported. In some situations, what seems a simple problem requires a rethinking of the entire manufacturing process, possible product recalls, possible plant retrofits, and even larger ramifications. This can happen regardless of where along the line the problem is discovered.

__

Hypothetical example:

A test technician determines that a lithium battery charger sometimes gets confused and doesn't shut down properly--continuing to charge the battery when it should not. If the proximate cause is a wire harness routing or a component improperly installed, a manufacturing engineer may be called in to address the issue. The manufacturing engineer's investigation may determine that a number of battery chargers have been delivered with the problem. Further investigation may reveal a potential for fire in situations where injury or loss of life are possible outcomes.

Assessment of the design by manufacturing, process, and design engineers may reveal more than one potential cause of the shutdown/fire-hazard issue, and that the location and nature of any fire may release toxins or cause damage to systems and equipment beyond those in the immediate vicinity of the defective battery and/or charger.

Such ramifications may require the attention of one or more systems engineers and/or a rethinking of system failure modes and effects, including fire detection and suppression, throughout the product. The product may be effectively "grounded" (taken out of service), with possible customer revenue implications, until such time as the issues can be satisfactorily resolved.

(Note: 787 Dreamliner battery problems were caused by the physics of the battery construction, not the charger. The rest of the scenario above is not a bad match.)

Answer:

prove that | S | = | E | ; every element of S there is an Image on E , while not every element on E has an image on S

Explanation:

Given that S = { p q |p, q are prime numbers greater than 0}

                    E = {0, −2, 2, −4, 4, −6, 6, · · · }

To prove  by constructing a bijection from S to E

detailed  solution attached below

After the bijection :

prove that | S | = | E | :  every element of S there is an Image on E , while not every element on E has an image on S

∴ we can say sets E and S are infinite sets