Combine the like terms to create an equivalent expression:2r+1+(−4r)+7

Answer: c=0

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: x=7

Step-by-step explanation:

AC=BD

2x+19=5x+2

19-2=5x-2x

21=3x

x=21/3

x=7

Answer:

157.2

Step-by-step explanation:

Delta math

Answer:  157.2  degrees

Step-by-step explanation: Use law of cosines

Answer:

Solve for the first variable in one of the equations, then substitute the result into the other equation.

Point Form:

( 0 ,   1 )

Equation Form:

x = 0 ,     y = 1

Step-by-step explanation:

Graph.

y = − 5/ 2 x − 1

y = 3 x − 1

y = 2/ 5 x + 1

y = 5/ 3 x + 1

Answer:

No because 35/3 is 11.67 :))

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helped :)) Please mark brainliest:))

example 1: this is basically reducing WHILE multiplying. since 5 and 10 have a greatest common factor and is able to be reduced by each other, we do so. hence the reason 5 went to 1 and 10 went to 2 because 5 goes into 5 once and 5 goes into 10 twice. it was a different case for 3 and 8. 3 obviously cant go into 8 and 3 is prime so nothing can be done with those. ONLY REDUCE WHILE MULTIPLYING DIAGONALLY you CANNOT do up and down or side to side. so our new fractions are [tex]\frac{3}{2}[/tex] and [tex]\frac{1}{8}[/tex] so multiply across and get [tex]\frac{3}{16}[/tex] which cant be reduced more.

example 2: this one in my opinion is pretty easy. you take the two fractions and multiply regularly across. you get [tex]\frac{27}{80}[/tex]. that fraction can be reduced. so we find the prime factorization of each number. 3 is a prime factor. 3x3x3=27 which is our top number. 2 and 5 are all prime numbers used to reach 80. 2x2x2x2x5=80. that's the prime factorization method its an easier way to check your work also.

example 3: this one is practically a combination of the two previous ones. [tex]\frac{16}{21}[/tex] and [tex]\frac{7}{8}[/tex] can be diagonally reduced on both diagonals. 7 goes into 7 once and 7 goes into 21 three times 8 goes into 8 once and 8 goes into 16 twice. now we have [tex]\frac{1}{1}[/tex] and [tex]\frac{2}{3}[/tex] multiply across and get just [tex]\frac{2}{3}[/tex]. prime factorization is the best way to do this but, more effective with larger numbers. [tex]\frac{2*2*2*2*7}{3*7*2*2*2}[/tex] now cross out the numbers that are the same on the top and bottom. three 2's cancel out, one 7 cancels out, and now we're left with [tex]\frac{2}{3}[/tex].

I really hope this helps you!!

Answer:

14

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

I don't see the paper so how can i help u

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

x=41/4 -y

y=41/4 -x

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Suppose an upward force of 15 N is added to the box. What will be the net vertical force on the box?

THIS IS THE COMPLETE QUESTION BELOW;

1. Explain how you calculate the net force in any direction on the box.

2. Suppose an upward force of 15 N is added to the box. What will be the net vertical force on the box?

3. What force could be applied to the box to make the net force in the horizontal direction zero? Explain.

4. Suppose a force of 25 N to the right is added to the box. What will be the net force to the right?

CHECK THE ATTACHMENT FOR THE FIQURE.

1)since the given horizontal forces are acting on the box at opposite direction then

NET FORCE= (100- 50)N

= 50N( this is because the 100N and 50N acting Horizontally will cancel each other, then the remaining force is 50N.

✓Since, the  two vertical forces also acted on the box in opposite direction, then

NET FORCE= (25 25)N

= 0N

Note: horizontal forces are one acting from right to left and vice versa, while vertical forces are ones acting from up to down and vice versa.

HENCE, NET FORCE = 50N + 0N= 50N

2) since the net vertical force was 0N, if

15N force is added then we still have NET FORCE OF 15N

3) if  force of 50N is applied to horizontal forces moving from left to right then NET HORIZONTAL FORCES= 0N

4) since, the net force for the box is 50N, if  Horizontal force of 25N is added  moving left to right then NET FORCE = 25N for whole box.

Answer:

There could be many answers: 2/12, 3/18, 4/24...

Step-by-step explanation:

You never really gave options but all you do is just take 1/6 and multiply the top and bottom by a certain number to get what you're looking for, for example 1/6 times 2, both on the top and bottom will get you 2/12 because 1 times 2 is 2 and, 6 time 2 is 12. :)

Answer:

2/12 6/36 there's alot more

Answer:

m=42/0.7

m=60 miles they will be costing the same

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

f(-1)=-(-1)²+(-1)

    =-1-1

    = -2

Answer:

that's the answer for you..

Answer:

hb      Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

BC = 26

Step-by-step explanation:

since B is the midpoint of AC, then AB = BC

AC = 8x - 20 & AB = 3x - 1

AC = AB + BC or 2AB

8x - 20 = 2(3x - 1)

8x - 20 = 6x - 2

subtract 6x form each side

2x - 20 = -2

add 20 to each side

2x - 20 + 20 = -2 + 20

2x = 18

x = 9

BC = 3x - 1

BC = 27 - 1

BC = 26

AC = 52

Answer: is this correct

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Yes you are correct.

Answer:

is that just 1/2 lol i think but if u want add me on disc Andreww#6506

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

m<PTQ=90

m<TSR=45

PT=9

Answer:

$226,125

Step-by-step explanation:

the annual percentage rate is $6,075 (135,000×.045)

multiply $6,075 for 15 years = $91,125

add $135,000 (amount borrowed) and $91,125 (amount of interest) = $226,125

She would pay $91,125 less if she pays the loan off in 15 years rather than in 30 years.

To calculate simple interest, multiply the loan principal by the interest rate, then by the loan's period. Borrowers can get a rough estimate of the cost of borrowing by calculating simple interest. Simple interest loans are frequently used for auto loans and short-term personal loans.

As per the given data:

Money borrowed by race = $135,000

Simple interest rate = 4.5%

Principal amount (P) = $135,000

Interest paid = [tex]\frac{P \times R \times T}{100}[/tex]    {T is time in years}

Interest paid when loan in paid in 15 years:

=  [tex]\frac{135000 \times 4.5 \times 15}{100}[/tex]  = $91,125

Interest paid when loan in paid in 30 years:

=  [tex]\frac{135000 \times 4.5 \times 30}{100}[/tex] = $182,250

Amount she pays less = $182,250 -  $91,125 = $91,125

Hence, she would pay $91,125 less if she pays the loan off in 15 years rather than in 30 years.

To learn more on Simple interest, click:

brainly.com/question/30964667

#SPJ2

Answer:

3

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given an expression and are asked how many terms are there.

When it comes to terms, we need to see how many numbers have different endings, this can be variables, symbols, and exponents.

Looking into it, we see 4x^2 - 3x + 2

These are all different terms, therefore there are 3 different terms.

Answer:

37.3 m

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the distance of the coin to the base of the building be represented by x. Applying the required trigonometric function, we have:

Tan θ = [tex]\frac{Opposite}{Adjacent}[/tex]

Tan 15 = [tex]\frac{10}{x}[/tex]

0.2680 = [tex]\frac{10}{x}[/tex]

x = [tex]\frac{10}{0.2680}[/tex]

  = 37.3134

x = 37.3 m

The distance of the coin from the base of the building is 37.3 m.

Answer:

A. [tex]x_{1} = -44.427^{\circ}\pm n\cdot 360^{\circ}[/tex]

B. [tex]x_{2} = -135.573^{\circ}\pm n\cdot 360^{\circ}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

The negative value of the sine function indicates that [tex]x[/tex] is located at third and fourth quadrants. Besides, this function has a period of 360º. There are two families of solutions:

[tex]x_{1} = \sin^{-1} (-0.7)[/tex]

[tex]x_{1} = -44.427^{\circ}\pm n\cdot 360^{\circ}[/tex]

[tex]x_{2} = \sin^{-1} (-0.7)[/tex]

[tex]x_{2} = -135.573^{\circ}\pm n\cdot 360^{\circ}[/tex]

Hence, right answers are A and B.

Answer:

150 square inches

Step-by-step explanation:

TSA=6a^2

6*5*5

is 150 square inches

Answer:

6:0

Step-by-step explanation:

Thank me later :)))))))))

Answer:

try to download app that can help you, watch videos on how to do the problems or ask help with someone you know or just take notes that makes you understand better

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

A- The distribution of differences between the sample means of each group has a mean at or near zero making it likely the two groups are not statistically different.

Step-by-step explanation:

The distribution of both the red and blue is identical although the skewness differs slightly. The distribution of the two groups is identical and their mean is near to zero. The distribution of observation of the group provides clear view that these two groups are not statistically different.