Can someone help me with this math problem. The slope is 15 and the y-intercept is 10

Answer:

33,600

Step-by-step explanation:

take -4200 and multiply it by 8. You'd do this since the equation to get -4200 is

x(1/8) = -4200

multiply both sides by 8 to get rid of the fraction and you get x=33,600

Answer: $94.50

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Store C

Step-by-step explanation:

$7.56÷7=$1.08 a candy bar

Answer:

a) the probability that the first non-defective engine will be found on the second trial is 0.09

b) probability that the third non-defective engine will be found on the fifth trial is 0.00486

c) the Mean is 1.1111  and Variance is 0.1235  

d) the Mean is 3.3333and Variance is 0.3704  

Step-by-step explanation:

Firstly;

Let x be the number of trail on which the rth defective occurs

Also let the probability that an occurrence of a defective be p = 0.10

Here, x follows negative binomial distribution with parameters r and p

The probability mass function of X is as follows:

P(X = x) = [ x -1  p^r ( 1 - p)^(x-r)       ; x = r, r + 1, r + 2, ...

                 r - 1 ]

=   [ x -1  (0.10)^r ( 1 - 0.10)^(x-r)

     r - 1 ]

= [ x -1  (0.10)^r ( 0.9)^(x-r)  ..........n 1..... let this be equatio

    r - 1 ]

This represents the probability that the rth success occurs on the xth trail.  

a)

probability that the first non-defective engine will be found on the second trial?

Substitute r = 1 and x = 2 in equation 1  

P(X = 2)  = [ 2 - 1   (0.10)¹ ( 0.90 )²⁻¹

                   1 - 1 ]

= (0.10) × (0.90)

= 0.09

Therefore, the probability that the first non-defective engine will be found on the second trial is 0.09

b)

probability that the third non-defective engine will be found on the fifth trial?

So we substitute r = 3 and x = 5 in equation 1  

P(X = 5) = [ 5 - 1  (0.10)³ ( 0.90)⁵⁻³

                  3 - 1 ]

=    [ 4    (0.10)³ ( 0.9)²

      2 ]

= 0.00486

Therefore, probability that the third non-defective engine will be found on the fifth trial is 0.00486

Now the formula for the mean of the negative binomial distribution is as follows:  

Mean u = r / p    ------- let this be equation 2

The formula for the variance of the negative binomial distribution also is as follows:  

Variance α² = rq / p²   ---------- let this be equation 3

so

c)

the mean and variance of the number of trials on which the first non-defective engine is found.  

First, let the probability that non-defective engine found be p = 0.90

And q = (1 - p) = 1 - 0.90 = 0.10  

Now we substitute r = 1, p = 0.90 and q = 0.10 in equation 2 & 3simultaneously,

the mean and variances are as follows;

Mean = r/p = 1/0.90 = 1.1111

Variance = rq/p² = (1)(0.10) / (0.90)² = 0.1235  

Therefore the Mean is 1.1111  and Variance is 0.1235  

d)

the mean and variance of the number of trials on which the third non-defective engine is found  

Let the probability that non-defective engine found be p = 0.90

And q = (1 - p) = 1 - 0.90 = 0.10

Now we substitute r = 3, p = 0.90 and q = 0.10 in equation (2) and (3) simultaneously,

the mean and variances are;

Mean = r/p = 3/0.90 = 3.3333

Variance = rq/p² = (3)(0.10) / (0.90)² = 0.3704

Therefore the Mean is 3.3333 and Variance is 0.3704    

Answer:

this makes no sense give me the full question please

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

5(3x)

Step-by-step explanation:

I think i'm not totally sure.

Answer:

250 centimeters

Step-by-step explanation:

2 meters into centimeters is 200 so 200+50=250

Answer:

100cm

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

b

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

b.

1, 1; 1, 2; 1, 3; 1, 4; 2, 1; 2, 2; 2, 3; 2, 4; 3, 1; 3, 2; 3, 3; 3, 4; 4, 1; 4, 2; 4, 3; 4, 4; 5, 1; 5, 2; 5, 3; 5, 4; 6, 1; 6, 2; 6, 3; 6, 4;

Step-by-step explanation:

IT'S B

Answer:

7/20 thinner

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

x + 3

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

4x + 5 = 49

4x = 49-5

4x = 44

x = 44/4

x = 11

Answer:

100/35 = 2

35 goes into 100 2 times

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1.) y = -6

2.) y = 5/3x - 7

3.) y = 5

4.) y = -3x + 1

5.) x = -3

Step-by-step explanation:

So the equation you want to use is this:   [tex]\frac{y2-y1}{x2-x1}[/tex]

1.) Plug in

[tex]\frac{-6 - (-6)}{6 - 2} \\\\\frac{0}{4} = 0\\[/tex]

This line is zero slope to find the y-intercept get one of you points and plug them and the slope into this equation y = mx+ b. We will use (2,-6)

-6 = 0(2) + b (b represents y-intercept) (0*2=0)

-6 = b

So the equation is y = -6

2.) Do the same thing.

[tex]\frac{3-8}{6-9} \\\\\frac{-5}{-3} =\frac{5}{3}[/tex]

It's positive because when you divide a negative by a negative you get a positive. Plug in a point (6, 3) y = mx + b (b represents y-intercept)

3 = 5/3(6) + b (5/3*6 = 10)

3 = 10 + b (subtract 10 on both sides)

-7 = b

y = 5/3x - 7

3.) For this one you are just going to point slope form. y - y1 = m(x - x1)

Plug in

y - 5 = 0(x - (-8))

y - 5 = 0 (add 5 to both sides)

y = 5

4.) Do [tex]\frac{y2 - y1}{x2 - x1}[/tex] for this one

Plug in

[tex]\frac{-5 - 7}{2 - (-2)} \\\\\frac{-12}{4} = -3[/tex]

So the slope is -3. Plug into y = mx + b with the point (2, -5)

-5 = -3(2) + b (b represents y-intercept)

-5 = -6 + b (add 6 to both sides)

1 = b

The equation is y = -3x + 1

5.) Do the same thing as #4

[tex]\frac{-8 - (-5)}{6 - 6} \\\\\frac{-3}{0}[/tex]

This slope is undefined

Since you can't divide by 0 the equation would be

x = -3

Hope this helps ya!!

Answer:

4. interphase

5. prophase

6. metaphase

Answer:

The bread will be done baking at 12:15

Step-by-step explanation:

11:45+30=12:15

Answer:

12:15 pm

Step-by-step explanation:

30 minutes is two sets of 15 minutes

15+45=60

Therefore, 12:00pm is 15 minutes of back time

Add the second set of 15 minutes and you get 12:15 pm

Answer:

9

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The area of the square is

9  square inches. The area of the square and the length of its side are not directly proportional quantities

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Least Common Multiple (LCM) of 14 and 22 is 154.

Answer:

Least Common Multiple (LCM) of 14 and 22 is 154.

Answer:

The class interval is: 20-30

Step-by-step explanation:

Let l be the lower class limit and u be the upper class limit.

Then according to given statement that class mark is 25

[tex]\frac{l+u}{2} = 25\\l+u = 50\ \ \ Eqn\ 1[/tex]

And

Class size is 10

So, the second equation will be:

[tex]u-l = 10\ \ \ \ Eqn\ 2[/tex]

Adding equation 1 and 2

[tex]l+u+u-l = 50+10\\2u = 60\\\frac{2u}{2} = \frac{60}{2}\\u = 30[/tex]

Now putting u =30 in equation 1

[tex]l+u = 50\\l+30 = 50\\l = 50-30\\l = 20[/tex]

A class interval is written in the form that lower limit comes first and upper limit comes second.

So,

20-30

Hence,

The class interval is: 20-30

Answer:

hahahahahahahahahahahahahahahahaha

Answer:

Stronger thank you [undertale]

Milkychan

Answer:

C.

Hope this helps also please mark as Brainliest hit the crown thanks :)

Answer:

[tex](\frac{1}{2},\frac{5}{2})[/tex]

General Formulas and Concepts:

Pre-Alg

Alg I

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: Define

Point (3, 5)

Point (-2, 0)

Step 2: Find midpoint

Answer:

D All three companies were rated to be equal

Step-by-step explanation:

got it right on EDG2020

hi  

so    x + 3 (-x)  =  79/10

        x-3x = 79/10

         -2x = 79/10

             x =   79/10 / -2  

              X =   79/ 10 *   -1/2

              x =     - 79/20

              x =   - 3.95

Answer:

$4.80

Step-by-step explanation:

6 oranges for 1.80

sp 6 divided by 1.80 comes out to 0.3 per orange

0.3 times 16 comes out to 4.80

therefor $4.80

Answer:

$4.80

Step-by-step explanation:

1.80/6=0.3

0.3=$0.30 for each orange

16×0.3=4.8

4.8=$4.80 for 16 oranges

Answer:

1. 4320

2. 248

3. -180

4. 1/8

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation: