Can anyone help me with this?

Answer:

A=90

B=18

C=111

D=39

E=35

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

X = 45

Step-by-step explanation:

a^2 + b^2 = c^2

60^2 + a^2 = 75^2

3,600 + a^2 = 5,625

- 3,600            - 3,600

____________________

    a^2= 2025

square root them

a^2 = a

2025 = 45

so x =45

Answer:

4.

Step-by-step explanation:

28 = 2*2*7

48 = 2*2*2*2*3

72= 2*2*2*3*3

So the HCF = 2*2 = 4.

Answer:

hcf stand's for

highest common factor

and must be prime numbers

so the answers 3

Answer:

mike did i think im super sooooo sorry if im wrong

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

467 percent

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

366.67% increase

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

$46.25 ÷ $9

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

b

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

y = 2x + 24

Step-by-step explanation:

Slope-intercept form equation => y = mx + b

m = slope = change in y / change in x

b = y-intercept

✔️using two pairs of values form the table, (-6, 12) and (-5, 14):

Slope (m) = (14 - 12)/(-5 -(-6))

m = 2/1

m = 2

✔️To find b, substitute (x, y) = (-6, 12) and m = 2 into y = mx + b.

12 = 2(-6) + b

12 = -12 + b

12 + 12 = b

24 = b

b = 24

✔️To write the equation, substitute m = 2 and b = 24 into y = mx + b:

y = 2x + 24

Answer:92.4

Step-by-step explanation:

4x+7x=132

10x=132

x=132/10

x=13.2

4x=4×13.2

=52.8

5x=7×13.2

=92.4

Answer:

5

Step-by-step explanation:

it would be 5. x is 5 so if it is wrong sorry its best e a while since i done that kind of math

Answer:

40°, 140°, and 140°

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Since the games in total add up to 8, we see that 8 is a factor of 24. It goes in 3 times. Therefore, we have to multiply everything by 3 to get the answer out of 24. There will be 6 wins, 15 losses and 3 tie. That adds up to 24.

Answer:

78.5

Step-by-step explanation:

A=pi x r^2

A= 3.14 x 5 x 5

A=78.5

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The nth term:  [tex]a_n=a_1+d(n-1)[/tex]

So:

    a₄ = a₁ + 3d

18 =  a₁ + 3d   ⇒   3d =  18 - a₁

    a₇ = a₁ + 6d

39 = a₁ + 6d

39 = a₁ + 2(18 - a₁)

39 = a₁ + 36 - 2a₁

39 = 36 - a₁

a₁ = -3

3d = 18 - (-3)

3d = 21

d = 7

So the nth term:

                            [tex]a_n = -3 + 7(n-1)\\\\a_n=-3 +7n - 7\\\\a_n = 7n - 10[/tex]

Given:

The areas of two similar squares are 16m² and 49m².

To find:

The scale factor of their side lengths.

Solution:

We know that the ratio of the areas of the similar squares is proportional to the ratio of square of there sides.

[tex]\dfrac{\text{Area of first square}}{\text{Area of second square}}=\dfrac{(\text{Side length of first square})^2}{(\text{Side length of second square})^2}[/tex]

[tex]\dfrac{16\ m^2}{49\ m^2}=\dfrac{s_1^2}{s_2^2}[/tex]

[tex]\dfrac{4^2}{7^2}=\left(\dfrac{s_1}{s_2}\right)^2[/tex]

[tex]\left(\dfrac{4}{7}\right)^2=\left(\dfrac{s_1}{s_2}\right)^2[/tex]

Taking square root on both sides, we get

[tex]\dfrac{4}{7}=\dfrac{s_1}{s_2}[/tex]

[tex]\dfrac{s_1}{s_2}=\dfrac{4}{7}[/tex]

Now, the scale factor is the ratio of side length of second square to the side length of first square.

[tex]k=\dfrac{s_2}{s_1}[/tex]

[tex]k=\dfrac{7}{4}[/tex]

Therefore, the scale factor of their side lengths is [tex]k=\dfrac{7}{4}[/tex].

Answer: 4/7 is the right answer on Acellus

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

True

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]11^2=121\\12^2=144\\121<131<144[/tex]

Hence, [tex]\sqrt{131}[/tex] is in between 11 and 12

Answer:

4xy are binomials because it only had one term

Answer:

the answers are B, C, E

Step-by-step explanation:

x2y – 3x

6y2 – y

4xy –  two-fifths

Answer:

3 is the answer bc it make more sense

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1/20

Step-by-step explanation:

Simple probability is found by counting all the results which fit requirements and dividing by all possible results.

To find probability of two results in a row, multiply chance of first result by chance of second result.

Since you are replacing the marble before the second draw, we don’t have to figure out the various changes in odds for the different possible first draws. It’s just that simple.

There are 5 black marbles

There are 4 red marbles

There are always 20 marbles in all

5/20*4/20=1/4*1/5=1/20

By coincidence, the same as the chance of drawing the white marble in one draw.

Answer:

x*8 + y*14 ≥ 20

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that:

A batch of brownies makes 8 servings.

A pie makes 14 servings.

He wants to make, at least, 20 servings.

Then if he makes x batches of brownies, he will get x times 8 servings.

If he makes y pies, he will get y times 14 servings.

Adding that, he will get a total of:

x*8 + y*14 servings

And because he wants to make at least 20 servings (he can make 20 or more)

The inequality will be:

x*8 + y*14 ≥ 20

Where the "≥" symbol means that the expression at the left is greater than or equal to the expression of the right

Answer:

-2

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

converge

Step-by-step explanation:

The ratio that you multiply by to get the next term is 2/3, which is less than 1, so the geometric series converges by the Geometric Series Test.

Answer:

Converge

Step-by-step explanation:

The value of r in this infinite series is 2/3.

If the absolute value of r is less than 1, then the infinite series converges.

Since 2/3 is less than 1, the series must converge.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

So the final answers would be (90 > z)-P(80<z) = .47725 or 47.725%

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

17,2

Step-by-step explanation:

X = 21×cos35° = 21 × 0,82 = 17,20

Answer:

[tex]m\angle ABC=60\textdegree[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]m\angle ABC=360-90-90-m\angle AOC\\=180-120\\=60\textdegree[/tex]

Answer:

Option A) 7 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

t=0

so d= -0.5(0)+7

so d= 7 inches

hope it helps

have a great day!!