For the tax year 2019, a married couple filing a joint return can take a 20 percent QBI deduction for a service business if their taxable income is not more than $321,400.
The threshold for the 20 percent QBI (Qualified Business Income) deduction for service businesses for married couples filing a joint tax return is $321,400 for the tax year 2019. This means that if their taxable income is below this threshold, they can take a 20 percent deduction on their qualified business income. However, if their taxable income is above this threshold, the QBI deduction is subject to limitations based on the type of business, wages paid, and/or capital invested in the business.
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inventory isn't free to carry. examples?
Inventory is not free to carry because it incurs several costs that can impact a business's profitability.
Storage costs: A business must pay for the physical space to store its inventory, whether it's in a warehouse, stockroom, or on shelves in a store. This can include rent, utilities, and other associated costs.
Insurance costs: A business must insure its inventory against theft, damage, or loss. This can be a significant cost, particularly for high-value or perishable goods.
Obsolescence costs: If inventory becomes outdated, obsolete, or unsellable, it can result in significant losses for a business. This can be particularly true for industries with fast-changing trends or technology.
Opportunity costs: The capital tied up in inventory is not available for other uses, such as investing in new products, marketing, or expansion. This can limit a business's growth potential and profitability.
Handling costs: A business must pay for the labor and equipment required to handle and move inventory, including packing, shipping, and receiving. This can be a significant cost, particularly for businesses with large or heavy items.
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The growth rate of equity earnings without external financing is equal toa. Retention rate plus return on equity.b. Retention rate minus return on equity.c. Retention rate divided by return on equity.d. Retention rate times return on equity.e. Return on equity divided by retention rate.
The retention rate divided by the return on equity is the Growth rate of equity earnings without external backing. It's choice D.
The Growth rate in value with coming to no outdoors is not entirely settled by duplicating the payout proportion times the profit from value( ROE).
The chance change in the value of all goods and services produced in a nation over a given time period when compared to earlier ages is known as the profitable growth rate. The relative health of frugality over time is measured by the profitable growth rate.
The growth rate matters because:
It can help you prognosticate growth in the future.the chance of the population's overall change from one time to the coming.The donation of a business and its normal future development.To know more about Growth rate,
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Question 2 (5 points) In a purely competitive industry, there tends to be perfect price elasticity in the short run: Market demand curve. Market supply curve Demand for a good by a single consumer O Demand curve facing a single firm.
In a purely competitive industry, there tends to be perfect price elasticity in the short run D. Demand curve facing a single firm.
In a purely competitive industry, numerous firms produce an identical product, and individual firms are price takers, meaning they cannot influence the market price. In the short run, the market demand curve and market supply curve (options A and B) determine the equilibrium price and quantity for the entire industry. The demand for a good by a single consumer (option C) may have varying degrees of elasticity but does not necessarily exhibit perfect price elasticity.
The demand curve facing a single firm (option D), however, tends to be perfectly price elastic in the short run. This means that the firm can sell any quantity of its product at the prevailing market price without affecting the price. This occurs because each firm's output is an insignificant fraction of the industry's total output, and consumers have perfect knowledge about the identical products offered by different firms.
As a result, any attempt to charge a higher price would lead consumers to buy from other firms, causing the firm to lose all its customers. In contrast, lowering the price would not bring any additional benefits, as the firm can already sell its entire output at the market price.
In conclusion, perfect price elasticity in the short run is found on the demand curve facing a single firm in a purely competitive industry, as firms are price takers and cannot influence the market price. Therefore, the correct option is D.
The question was incomplete, Find the full content below:
Question 2 (5 points) In a purely competitive industry, there tends to be perfect price elasticity in the short run:
A. Market demand curve.
B. Market supply curve
C. Demand for a good by a single consumer
D. Demand curve facing a single firm.
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Menu costs help explain a. sticky-wage theory b. sticky-price theory c. natural rate of unemployment d. misperceptions theory
Menu costs play a role in explaining the sticky-price theory and the misperceptions theory. In the sticky-price theory, prices do not adjust immediately to changes in demand or supply due to the costs associated with changing prices, such as printing new menus or updating computer systems.
This results in temporary imbalances in the market, leading to fluctuations in output and employment. In the misperceptions theory, firms may misinterpret changes in prices as changes in relative prices, leading to incorrect production decisions. Menu costs also indirectly impact the natural rate of unemployment by causing firms to adjust employment levels instead of prices in response to changes in demand or supply. The sticky-wage theory, on the other hand, is not directly related to menu costs but rather suggests that nominal wages are slow to adjust due to factors such as labor market institutions or social norms.
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Topic 5. Short-run AS – AD model Consider the AS-AD model presented in L10. Consider an economy without international trade. Suppose there is an unexpected volcano explosion that destroys productive capital, so that the marginal product of capital increases at full capacity, and potential output falls. a) What would happen to current GDP in the short-run, assuming all other parameters remain the same, that is, ceteris paribus? (hint: consider the short-run IS curve) b) To help the economy, central bank decide to engage in expansionary policy by raising target inflation rate? What would happen to the AS and AD curves? c) To rebuild the loss productive facilities, the government decides to increase spending. What happens to the AS and AD curves?
In the short run, GDP will decrease due to the unexpected volcano explosion that destroyed productive capital and decreased potential output in an economy without international trade, assuming all other parameters remain constant.
In the AS-AD model, a decrease in potential output shifts the long-run aggregate supply (LRAS) curve leftward. In the short run, the economy will adjust to this shock by moving along the aggregate demand (AD) curve until a new equilibrium is reached.
With a decrease in potential output, the marginal product of capital increases, causing firms to decrease their production. This decrease in production leads to a decrease in GDP in the short run, assuming all other parameters remain constant.
Therefore, in the short run, the economy will experience a decrease in GDP due to the unexpected volcano explosion that destroyed productive capital.
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The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:
Short-run AS – AD model Consider the AS-AD model presented in L10. Consider an economy without international trade. Suppose there is an unexpected volcano explosion that destroys productive capital, so that the marginal product of capital increases at full capacity, and potential output falls. What would happen to current GDP in the short-run, assuming all other parameters remain the same, that is, ceteris paribus?
cake is a product of the chester company. chester's sales forecast for cake is 1,260 in the americas region. chester wants to have an extra 10% on hand above their forecasted units in case sales are better than expected. (they would risk the possibility of excess inventory carrying charges rather than risk lost profits on a stock out.) taking current inventory into account, what will cake's fulfillment after adjustment have to be in order to have a 10% reserve of units available for sale? all numbers in thousands (000).
To have an extra 10% on hand above their forecasted units in case sales are better than expected taking current inventory into account, the cake's fulfillment after adjustment to be in order to have a 10% reserve of units available will be 1,186 units (1,386 units - 200 units).
The Chester Company's sales forecast for cake in the Americas region is 1,260 units. In order to have a 10% reserve of units available for sale, Chester Company needs to add an additional 10% of the forecasted units to their current inventory. This means that they need to have a total of 1,386 units (1,260 units + 10% of 1,260 units) available for sale.
To calculate the fulfillment after adjustment, we need to subtract the current inventory from the total units available for sale. Let's assume that the current inventory of cake is 200 units. Therefore, the fulfillment after adjustment for cake will be 1,186 units (1,386 units - 200 units).
It's important for Chester Company to have a reserve of units available for sale in case the demand for cake exceeds their forecast. This approach helps to prevent stock out situations, which can result in lost profits. However, carrying excess inventory also has its own costs associated with it, such as storage and handling charges.
Therefore, companies need to find the right balance between carrying enough inventory to meet the demand and not carrying too much inventory that can result in excess carrying charges.
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You are in the process of identifying stakeholders that you want support from on your project. You have already identified some stakeholders using the key stakeholder list. What additional source of information can be used to help identify stakeholders?AnswersA. Stakeholder engagement planB. Project charterC. Milestone listD. Issue log
A. Stakeholder engagement plan is an additional source of information that can be used to help identify stakeholders.
The stakeholder engagement plan outlines the strategies for engaging stakeholders and the roles and responsibilities of each stakeholder. It also includes the communication plan, which specifies the methods and frequency of communication with stakeholders.
By reviewing the stakeholder engagement plan, you can identify stakeholders who may have a significant impact on the project or who may be affected by the project but have not yet been identified on the key stakeholder list.
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Process of identifying stakeholders that you want support from on your project. You have already identified some stakeholders using the key stakeholder list. The correct answer is A. Stakeholder engagement plan.
A. A further source of information that can be utilised to identify stakeholders is the stakeholder engagement plan. The stakeholder engagement plan outlines the methods for including stakeholders as well as the obligations of each. The communication plan, which outlines the channels and timing of communications with stakeholders, is also included.You can identify stakeholders who might significantly affect the project or who might be impacted by the project but have not yet been identified on the key stakeholder list by examining the stakeholder engagement plan.
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1,000 words, excluding references (+/- 10%)
No minimum number of references. Please note that whilst there is no minimum required, it is expected that your work will be supported by references to websites, industry and media sources and/or academic sources.
Assessment Information
For this you are to assume the fictional role of an employee in a marketing agency charged with the responsibility of creating a campaign for a new client. You are asked to conduct background research on the client and provide an overview of your ideas (based on your research and knowledge gained in Weeks 1 to 4) for a new marketing campaign.
Choose ONE of the following:
1. Hobart City Council - a local Hobart council-wide campaign to build awareness and promote participation in the FOGO (food organics and garden organics) composting kerbside program
2. Tasmanian Symphony Orchestra - a Tasmanian state-wide campaign to target local 25- 34yo to increase appeal of classical music and attract attendance at concerts
3. Myer - an Australian national campaign to target 18-25yo to increase in store shopping
Time will be allocated in Workshop 1 to focus on the elements required for this assessment. Students will be expected to conduct their own research and writing outside of the workshops to prepare this assignment.
Using the headings and subheadings listed below, present an overview of the following:
1. Situational Analysis
1.1 Industry Analysis
1.2 Company Background 1.3 Competitor Analysis
2. Brand Equity
3. Market Segmentation
4. Brand Positioning
5. Communication Objectives
Marketing Campaign for Myer - Targeting 18-25 year olds to increase in-store shopping
Situational Analysis
1.1 Industry Analysis
Myer operates in the retail industry, which is highly competitive with numerous players such as David Jones, Kmart, Target, and Big W. In recent years, the industry has been affected by the rise of online shopping, which has led to a decline in foot traffic in physical stores. However, the pandemic has shifted consumer behaviour towards local shopping, and the retail industry has seen a rise in sales since the reopening of physical stores. Furthermore, the industry has seen a shift towards sustainable and ethical practices, and Myer has the opportunity to capitalise on this trend.
1.2 Company Background
Myer is an iconic Australian department store with a rich history dating back to 1900. It operates 60 stores across Australia and has a strong online presence. The brand has a reputation for providing high-quality products and exceptional customer service. However, in recent years, the brand has struggled to maintain its position in the market and has seen a decline in sales.
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9. when the dollar is worth more in relation to currencies of other countries, are you more likely to buy american-made or foreign-made jeans? are u.s. companies that manufacture jeans happier when the dollar is strong or when it is weak? what about an american company that is in the business of importing jeans into the united states?
When the dollar is worth more in relation to other currencies, it means that American consumers have more purchasing power when it comes to foreign-made goods.
Therefore, they are more likely to buy foreign-made jeans. This is because foreign-made jeans will be relatively cheaper compared to American-made jeans, which could be more expensive due to higher production costs.
U.S. companies that manufacture jeans are happier when the dollar is strong because it means that they can sell their products for more money in foreign markets, which can increase their profits. However, if they rely heavily on imported materials or have a large presence in foreign markets, they may be negatively affected by a strong dollar.
An American company that is in the business of importing jeans into the United States would prefer a weak dollar. This is because a weak dollar makes imported goods relatively more expensive, which could make domestic products more competitive.
Additionally, a weak dollar would mean that the company would need to pay less in foreign currency for the jeans they are importing, which can help to increase their profits.
Overall, the strength or weakness of the dollar can have various effects on the jeans industry, depending on the specific circumstances of each company.
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which of the following is true about cost-plus regulation of public utilities? please select two correct answers. select all that apply: producers enjoy the same level of profit every year producers have an incentive to lower costs over time so their profits will rise producers cannot change their prices when costs change producers have an incentive to generate high costs by building huge factories or employing many staff
Answer:
Producers have an incentive to lower costs over time so their profits will rise.
P.roducers cannot change their prices when costs change
Explanation:
Cost-plus regulation is a system in which public utilities are allowed to charge customers a rate that includes their costs plus a guaranteed rate of return on investment. This rate is typically set by a regulatory agency, and the utility is allowed to earn a profit based on its costs.
Under this system, producers have an incentive to lower costs over time so that they can increase their profit margin. However, this does not necessarily mean that they will enjoy the same level of profit every year, as their costs may fluctuate from year to year.
Producers cannot change their prices when costs change, as their prices are typically set by the regulatory agency. This means that if costs increase, the producer's profit margin will decrease, and they will have a greater incentive to lower costs in the future to maintain their profit margin.
The idea that producers have an incentive to generate high costs by building huge factories or employing many staff is not necessarily true. In fact, under cost-plus regulation, producers have an incentive to keep costs as low as possible, as this will increase their profit margin.
which of the following is not a liquidity ratio? question 19 options: working capital. current ratio. price-earnings ratio. inventory turnover.
Price-Earnings Ratio is not a liquidity ratio, as it focuses on assessing the value of a company's shares in relation to its earnings rather than the company's ability to pay off short-term debts or obligations.
The four options provided are:
1. Working Capital: This is the difference between a company's current assets and current liabilities. It is used to measure a company's short-term financial health and operational efficiency.
2. Current Ratio: This ratio is calculated by dividing a company's current assets by its current liabilities. It indicates a company's ability to pay off its short-term liabilities with its short-term assets.
3. Price-Earnings Ratio: This ratio is calculated by dividing a company's market price per share by its earnings per share. It is used to determine the relative value of a company's shares compared to its earnings. The Price-Earnings Ratio is not a liquidity ratio, as it does not directly relate to a company's ability to pay off its short-term debts or obligations.
4. Inventory Turnover: This ratio measures how efficiently a company manages its inventory by calculating the number of times a company sells and replaces its inventory during a specific period. It helps assess the effectiveness of inventory management and control.
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the isberg company just paid a dividend of $0.75 per share, and that dividend is expected to grow at a constant rate of 5.50% per year in the future. the company's beta is 1.65, the market risk premium is 5.00%, and the risk-free rate is 4.00%. what is the company's current stock price, p0? do not round intermediate calculations. the isberg company just paid a dividend of $0.75 per share, and that dividend is expected to grow at a constant rate of 5.50% per year in the future. the company's beta is 1.65, the market risk premium is 5.00%, and the risk-free rate is 4.00%. what is the company's current stock price, p0? do not round intermediate calculations. $12.31 $11.72 $11.84 $13.95 $9.26
The company's current stock price, p0. The company's beta is 1.65, the market risk premium is 5.00%, and the risk-free rate is 4.00%. Thus, option (e) is correct.
Next year dividend is:
= $0.75 + $0.75 × 5.50%
= $0.75 + 0.04125
= $0.79125
Required rate of return is:
Required rate of return = Risk free rate of return + Beta × market risk premium
Required rate of return = 4% + 1.65 × 5.00%
Required rate of return = 0.1225%
current stock price = Next year dividend ÷ (Required rate of return - growth rate)
current stock price = $0.79125 ÷ (1.65% - 5.50%)
current stock price = 697.751(approx)
As a result, the current stock price is the most closely to the $9.26 are the correct option is (e) is correct.
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A certificate of deposit offers a nominal interest rate of 2.5 percent annually.
If inflation is 1 percent, what is the real rate of return?
O A. 1.5 percent
OB. 2.5 percent
OC. 2 percent
OD. 0.5 percent
Answer:a
Explanation:
Answer:1.5 is the answer
Explanation:
A/an ____ appraisal is conducted as part of the day-to-day working relationship between a manager and an employee.spontaneousinformal
An informal appraisal is conducted as part of the day-to-day working relationship between a manager and an employee. This type of appraisal is typically less structured and less formal than a traditional appraisal. The purpose of an informal appraisal is to provide feedback to the employee on their performance, highlight areas where they are excelling, and identify areas where they may need improvement.
In an informal appraisal, the manager may provide feedback on the employee's performance during regular meetings or check-ins. This could include discussing specific projects or tasks that the employee has worked on and providing feedback on their performance. The manager may also ask for the employee's input and feedback on their own performance, and work together to identify areas where improvements could be made.
Informal appraisals are a valuable tool for managers to provide ongoing feedback and support to their employees. They help to create a culture of open communication and collaboration, where employees feel valued and supported. However, it is important to note that informal appraisals should not replace formal performance reviews. Formal appraisals provide a more structured and comprehensive evaluation of an employee's performance, and should be conducted at least once a year.
In conclusion, an informal appraisal is an important part of the day-to-day working relationship between a manager and an employee. It provides an opportunity for ongoing feedback and support, and helps to create a culture of open communication and collaboration. However, it should be used in conjunction with formal appraisals to provide a comprehensive evaluation of an employee's performance.
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a) Name two common Debt Leverage Ratios?
For each answer the following:
b) What is it measuring?
c) Give the equation? d) What risk do these measure and do you want the ratios higher or lower?
e) What would the ratio be if 1/2 of the company is financed by debt?
Two common Debt Leverage Ratios are the Debt-to-Equity Ratio and Debt-to-Asset Ratio Debt-to-Equity Ratio measures the proportion of a company's financing that comes from debt compared to equity.
c) Debt-to-Equity Ratio = Total Debt / Total Equity. Debt-to-Asset Ratio = Total Debt / Total Assets.
d) These ratios measure the risk of a company's financing structure and indicate how much of the company's assets are financed by debt. Generally, lower ratios indicate a lower risk as the company is less reliant on debt financing. However, industries may have different average ratios, and higher ratios may be acceptable depending on the circumstances.
e) If 1/2 of the company is financed by debt, the Debt-to-Equity Ratio would be 1:1, and the Debt-to-Asset Ratio would be 0.5.
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Walmart's core competency is efficient distribution.T/F
Walmart's core competency is its highly efficient and sophisticated distribution system. The company has developed a supply chain management system that is considered a model for other companies to follow. Given Statement is true.
Walmart's core competency is widely recognized as its highly efficient distribution system. The company is known for its ability to move products from suppliers to its stores quickly and at a low cost, which has enabled it to keep prices low and remain competitive in the retail industry. Walmart has invested heavily in its distribution capabilities, including building an extensive network of warehouses and transportation infrastructure. The company's use of technology, such as inventory management systems and data analytics, has also contributed to its efficient distribution processes.
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the intrinsic value of an in-of-the-money call option is equal to group of answer choices the striking price. zero. none of the options are correct. the stock price minus the exercise price. the call premium.
The intrinsic value of an in-the-money call option is equal to the stock price minus the exercise price. Therefore, the correct answer is: "the stock price minus the exercise price."
The intrinsic value of an in-the-money call option is the difference between the current stock price and the option's strike price. When an investor buys a call option, they are essentially purchasing the right to buy the underlying stock at the strike price.
If the current market price of the stock is higher than the strike price, the call option is said to be "in-the-money," as it has intrinsic value. In this case, the intrinsic value is equal to the amount by which the stock price exceeds the strike price.
For example, if the stock is trading at $50 and the strike price is $40, the intrinsic value of the option is $10. Therefore, the correct answer is "the stock price minus the exercise price." It's important to note that the intrinsic value does not include any time value or premium associated with the option, as those factors are determined by market supply and demand.
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What types of job applicants do private employment agencies tend not to serve?
Professional workers
Skilled workers
Managerial workers
Non-skilled workers
Private employment agencies tend not to serve: non-skilled workers as extensively. The correct option is D.
Private employment agencies generally focus on connecting employers with job seekers who have specialized skills, education, or experience. Therefore, they tend to serve professional, skilled, and managerial workers more effectively, as these candidates often possess in-demand qualifications.
In contrast, private employment agencies tend not to serve non-skilled workers as extensively. This is because non-skilled workers typically have fewer specialized skills, training, or qualifications, which makes them less attractive to employers seeking specific expertise.
Moreover, the demand for non-skilled labor may be more easily met through other channels, such as public employment agencies or informal networks.
To summarize, private employment agencies tend to focus on serving professional, skilled, and managerial workers, while they are less likely to serve non-skilled workers due to their limited specialized skills and the availability of alternative sources for filling such positions.
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Complete question:
What types of job applicants do private employment agencies tend not to serve?
a. Professional workers
b. Skilled workers
c. Managerial workers
d. Non-skilled workers
You are managing a project designed to create an environmentally friendly concept home. You need to identify the total funds required. Which method would BEST be used to achieve this?
To identify the total funds required for the project, the best method to use would be cost estimation. This involves analyzing the different components of the project.
By adding up all these costs, you can arrive at the total funds required for the project. Additionally, it's important to consider any unexpected costs that may arise during the project, such as delays or changes in design, and allocate contingency funds accordingly.
Cost estimation in project management is the process of forecasting the cost and other resources needed to complete a project within a defined scope. Cost estimation accounts for each element required for the project and calculates a total amount that determines a project's budget.
By using cost estimation, you can create a realistic budget for the project and ensure that the necessary funds are available to complete it successfully.
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The two general uses of performance appraisal, which are often in conflict, are:a. salary administration and discipline.b. training and development.c. administrative and development.d. coaching and career planning
Administrative (pay and punishment) and developmental (training and career planning), which can occasionally be at odds with one another, are the two general functions of performance appraisal.
What are the administrative and developmental purposes of performance reviews?Validating the selection criteria and fulfilling legal requirements are examples of development purposes for performance appraisal. A performance evaluation's administrative goals include tracking personnel choices and determining each person's training requirements.
What functions does the Mcq form perform?A performance assessment, sometimes referred to as an annual review, performance review or evaluation, or employee appraisal, assesses a worker's abilities, successes, and development and serves as the foundation for deciding whether to promote them.
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3. According to the IS curve, real output and real interest rates are negatively related. From 2007-2019 (so before Covid-19), real output fell considerably relative to expectations. What happened to the real interest rate (as measured by ten-year TIPS yields) from 2007-2019? b. Discuss what these observations (about real output and real yields) imply about the empirical validity of the IS curve. (Hint: you may want to consider the possibility that the IS curve may have shifted over time.)
From 2007-2019, real output fell considerably relative to expectations, which suggests a shift in the IS curve. According to the IS curve, real output and real interest rates are negatively related, meaning that as real output falls, real interest rates should increase. However, the opposite occurred during this time period as the real interest rate, as measured by ten-year TIPS yields, actually decreased. This suggests that the IS curve may have shifted to the right, indicating a decrease in the sensitivity of real interest rates to changes in real output.
Overall, these observations about real output and real yields imply that the empirical validity of the IS curve may not be as strong as previously thought. The fact that the expected negative relationship between real output and real interest rates did not hold during this time period suggests that there may be other factors at play that influence the relationship between these variables. Therefore, it is important to consider the possibility that the IS curve may have shifted over time and that the relationship between real output and real interest rates may not always be as predicted by the IS curve.
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Select all that apply
Decision making ______.
is another term for planning
uses feedback from other managerial processes
requires up-to-date information
relies primarily on financial accounting information
Decision making is a crucial aspect of managerial processes, and it involves various steps that are undertaken by managers to arrive at an appropriate decision.
Firstly, decision making is not another term for planning; rather, it is a process that follows planning. Planning sets the objectives and outlines the course of action, whereas decision making involves selecting the best course of action from the available alternatives to achieve those objectives. Secondly, decision making involves feedback from other managerial processes. Managers should gather relevant data and feedback from various sources to analyze the potential outcomes of each option. This feedback could come from employees, market trends, past performance, and customer feedback, among others. Thirdly, decision making requires up-to-date information to ensure that the decision is relevant to the current situation. This information includes data on market trends, customer preferences, and competitor analysis, among others. Without up-to-date information, the decision may be irrelevant or even harmful to the organization. Lastly, while financial accounting information is an essential component of decision making, it should not be the sole factor relied upon. Other factors such as marketing, human resources, and operations should also be considered to arrive at a well-informed decision. Therefore, decision making does not rely primarily on financial accounting information.
In summary, decision making is a critical process that requires up-to-date information, feedback from other managerial processes, and consideration of various factors to arrive at the best course of action.
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An extension of the Fama-French three-factor model includes a fourth factor to measureA. default spread.B. term spread.C. momentum.D. industrial production.E. inflation.
The extension of the Fama-French three-factor model includes a fourth factor to measure momentum.
The Fama-French three-factor model is a widely used model to predict stock returns, originally consisting of three factors: market risk, size, and value. An extension of this model incorporates a fourth factor to measure momentum, which is the tendency of stock prices to continue moving in the same direction over time.
Momentum is added to the Fama-French model because it has been found to be a significant predictor of stock returns. In essence, stocks with strong recent performance tend to continue performing well, while stocks with weak recent performance tend to continue underperforming. By adding the momentum factor to the Fama-French model, it is possible to capture this effect and improve the accuracy of return predictions.
This factor is added to better predict stock returns by considering the continuation of past performance trends. The inclusion of momentum in the model captures the observed effects of past performance on future returns and enhances the model's predictive capabilities.
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Answer the following: (6%) (A) If wages are sticky in the short-run, the short-run Phillips curve is downward sloping. TRUE / FALSE (B) A downward sloping Philips curve implies that output increases as inflation rises. TRUE / FALSE
The statement , " If wages are sticky in the short-run, the short-run Phillips curve is downward sloping." is true. Also, the statement "A downward sloping Philips curve implies that output increases as inflation rises." is true.
(A) TRUE., if wages are sticky in the short-run, the short-run Phillips curve is downward sloping.
When wages are sticky, they do not adjust immediately to changes in the economy. As a result, in the short run, there is an inverse relationship between unemployment and inflation, which creates a downward sloping Phillips curve.
(B) TRUE., a downward sloping Philips curve implies that output increases as inflation rises.
When the Phillips curve is downward sloping, it shows that there is an inverse relationship between inflation and unemployment. When inflation rises, unemployment tends to decrease, which means that more people are employed and producing goods and services, leading to an increase in output.
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with the money supply back at 4320, government purchases and taxes rise to 190. repeat part ( ). assume for simplicity that is fixed (unaffected by ). is fiscal policy neutral in this case? explain.
In this scenario, it is not clear whether fiscal policy is neutral or not. Fiscal policy is considered neutral when changes in government spending and taxation do not significantly impact the economy.
However, without information on the overall state of the economy, such as inflation levels or unemployment rates, it is difficult to determine the impact of the increase in government purchases and taxes.
Additionally, the missing term in the question could be crucial in determining whether fiscal policy is neutral or not. For example, if the missing term is the interest rate, an increase in government purchases and
taxes could lead to a decrease in private investment, which would make fiscal policy expansionary rather than neutral. Overall, more information is needed to determine the neutrality of fiscal policy in this case.
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Marcus uses 25 percent of his personal residence as a home office. Marcus rents his home at an annual rental cost of $15,000. If Marcus meets the requirements for a home office deduction, the deductible amount is ______.
A) $0
B) $3,750
C) $15,000
Marcus uses 25 percent of his personal residence as a home office. Marcus rents his home at an annual rental cost of $15,000. If Marcus meets the requirements for a home office deduction, the amount is $3,750.
To calculate the home office deduction, Marcus needs to determine the percentage of his home that is used for business purposes. In this case, he uses 25% of his personal residence as a home office.Then, Marcus can deduct a percentage of his rent that corresponds to the percentage of his home that is used for business. So, the deductible amount would be 25% of his annual rental cost, which is:0.25 x $15,000 = $3,750In this case, Marcus uses 25 percent of his personal residence as a home office. Therefore, he can deduct 25 percent of his rental costs as a business expense.25% of $15,000 = $3,750So the correct answer is B) $3,750.
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which of the following is not a characteristic of a perfectly competitive market? multiple choice no transactions costs participants are price takers. government regulation to ensure fairness a standardized product full information
"Government regulation to ensure fairness" as it is not a characteristic of a perfectly competitive market.
In a perfectly competitive market, there are no barriers to entry or exit, and no one participant can influence the market price. Additionally, all participants have access to full information about the market and the product being sold. This results in a standardized product that is indistinguishable from a competitor and no transaction costs are incurred. Furthermore, all participants in a perfectly competitive market are price takers, meaning they have no power to influence the market price. Therefore, government regulation is not necessary to ensure fairness in a perfectly competitive market as the competition itself ensures that prices remain fair and just.
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The distinction between manufacturing and nonmanufacturing costs applies ______.
only to companies that make a physical product
only to merchandisers
to all companies that make or sell products
only to service companies
The distinction between manufacturing and nonmanufacturing costs applies to all companies that make or sell products.
Manufacturing costs are associated with the production of goods, while nonmanufacturing costs relate to other aspects of the business, such as selling, administration, and distribution. This distinction is relevant for all types of companies involved in making or selling products, including manufacturers, merchandisers, and service companies.
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suppose real gdp is forecasted to grow by 1.58 %, the velocity of money has been stable, and the fed announces an inflation target of 2.10 %. what is the largest money growth rate the fed could implement and still achieve its inflation target?
The largest money growth rate the Fed could implement and still achieve its inflation target is 0.52%.
The largest money growth rate the Fed could implement and still achieve its inflation target is 0.52%. This is calculated by subtracting the forecasted real GDP growth rate of 1.58% from the Fed's inflation target of 2.10%, resulting in a target nominal GDP growth rate of 3.68%.
Since velocity of money has been stable, the Fed can use the equation MV=PY, where M is the money supply, V is velocity, P is the price level, and Y is real GDP, to solve for the maximum money growth rate.
Rearranging the equation to solve for M, we get M=PY/V. Plugging in the numbers, we get M= 3.68%/1 x $20 trillion/1.5 = $49.07 trillion.
This is a 0.52% increase in the money supply.
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It cost coyote stadium 1200 to lease one 1500 space parking lot from one of many local businesses how much will it cost
$12,000 h will it cost to lease enough lots to accommodate an overflow of 14,991 vehicles.
The cost of leasing 1,500 parking lot is $1200. The cost of leasing 14,991 vehicles will.
we divide 14,991 vehicles to get the number of '1500's
=14,991/ 1500
=9.994
=10 lots of 1500
The total cost of leasing will be $1200 x 10 =$12,000
A local business could be an independent store, a food truck, or an office space, for example. A local business differs from a chain store in that the local business owner owns the building in which it is located. Most local businesses are small and family-owned, which is a frequent characteristic.
Small companies include grocery stores, medical stores, tradespeople, bakeries, and small manufacturing units. Small businesses are self-owned enterprises that require less money, fewer employees, and little or no machinery.
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