A bank's off-balance-sheet activities usually:
a. increase both its assets and liabilities while reducing net income.
b. increase its net income but do not change its assets or liabilities.
c. increases a bank's liabilities but not its assets.
d. increases a bank's assets but not its liabilities.

Answers

Answer 1

Off-balance-sheet transactions a bank engages in typically result in an increase in both its assets and liabilities and a decrease in net income. As a result, option (A) is correct.

A company's assets or obligations that do not show up on its balance sheet are referred to as off-balance sheet (OBS) items. Despite not appearing on the balance sheet, they are nonetheless the company's assets and obligations. Off-balance sheet items are frequently ones that the corporation does not directly own or owe bank.

Off balance sheet, also known as incognito leverage, refers to a financial transaction that is not recorded on the company's balance sheet. Total return swaps are one type of item that is not on the balance sheet.

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Related Questions

You have been tasked with randomly inspecting five project documents from a set of 50 to ensure the correct procedures are being followed for creating them. What are you currently engaged in?

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You are currently engaged in quality control, specifically sampling.

By randomly inspecting five project documents out of a set of 50, you are performing a sample check to ensure that the correct procedures are being followed for creating these documents.

This helps to maintain the quality and consistency of the project documentation without having to review every single document.

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The primary National Ambient Air Quality Standards: (a) are intended to protect public welfare from adverse non-health effects of air pollution (b) are established to protect public health from air pollution (c) control both criteria air pollutants and hazardous air pollutants(a) and (b) all of the above

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The primary National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) are established to (b) protect public health from air pollution by regulating criteria air pollutants. These standards help ensure a safe and healthy environment for the public.

The primary National Ambient Air Quality Standards are established to protect public health from air pollution. They set limits on the concentrations of criteria air pollutants, which are known to cause adverse health effects, such as respiratory illness, cardiovascular disease, and cancer. While the standards do not specifically address hazardous air pollutants, reducing the levels of criteria pollutants can also lead to reductions in hazardous pollutants. Additionally, the standards also aim to protect public welfare from adverse non-health effects of air pollution, such as damage to crops, forests, and visibility.

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during which of the vulnerability life cycle management phases do you implement the controls and protections from your plan of action?

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During the vulnerability life cycle management process, you implement the controls and protections from your plan of action in the "Remediation" phase.

This is when you apply the necessary countermeasures to mitigate the identified vulnerabilities and reduce potential risks.

The Remediation phase is the phase in which the actual implementation of controls and protections from the previously developed plan of action takes place. This phase is essential because it is where the organization puts into action the necessary countermeasures to mitigate the identified vulnerabilities and reduce potential risks.

During the Remediation phase, the organization will typically prioritize the vulnerabilities based on their severity, likelihood of exploitation, and potential impact. This prioritization helps to ensure that the most significant vulnerabilities are addressed first, reducing the organization's overall risk exposure.

Once the vulnerabilities have been prioritized, the organization will then implement the necessary controls and protections to mitigate the vulnerabilities. This may include a combination of technical controls, such as software patches, system hardening, and network segmentation, as well as administrative controls, such as policies and procedures, training, and awareness programs.

It is important to note that the Remediation phase is not a one-time event. Vulnerabilities are constantly being discovered and new threats are emerging, so the organization must continue to monitor its systems and processes, identify new vulnerabilities, and implement the necessary controls to mitigate them.

This ongoing cycle of vulnerability management helps to ensure that the organization's information systems remain secure and that the risk of a successful cyberattack is minimized.

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which of the following is not a limitation of internal control policies and procedures? human error. cost-benefit constraint. collusion. establishing responsibilities. human fraud.

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"establishing responsibilities" is not a limitation of internal control policies and procedures.

Establishing responsibilities is a crucial aspect of internal control policies, as it helps assign specific duties and accountability to different individuals, ensuring that each person knows their role within the organization. This, in turn, helps to maintain a well-structured and effective internal control system, therefore it is not a limitation.

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Supply-side economists point to the Laffer curve as evidence that higher taxes:

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Supply-side economists point to the Laffer curve as evidence that higher taxes can actually decrease government revenue.

The Laffer curve demonstrates that there is a point at which raising taxes beyond a certain level will actually lead to a decrease in government revenue.

This is because as taxes become too high, individuals and businesses are less incentivized to work and invest, which leads to a decline in economic activity and ultimately less revenue for the government.

Therefore, supply-side economists argue that lowering tax rates can actually stimulate economic growth and generate more revenue for the government in the long run.

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​​​​​​Just answer a, b, c, or d please, no need forexplanation~A tariff on a good that would be imported... a. Creates two deadweight loss triangles. O b. Increases total gains from trade for the country that gains revenue from the tariff. O c. Is borne entirely by foreign producers. O d. All of the above. e. Only (a) and (b).

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​​​​​​Just answer a, b, c, or d please, no need forexplanation~A tariff on a good that would be imported... a. Creates two deadweight loss triangles. O b. Increases total gains from trade for the country that gains revenue from the tariff. O c. Is borne entirely by foreign producers. O d. All of the above. e. Only (a) and (b).​​​​​​Just answer a, b, c, or d please, no need forexplanation~A tariff on a good that would be imported... a. Creates two deadweight loss triangles. O b. Increases total gains from trade for the country that gains revenue from the tariff. O c. Is borne entirely by foreign producers. O d. All of the above. e. Only (a) and (b).​​​​​​Just answer a, b, c, or d please, no need forexplanation~A tariff on a good that would be imported... a. Creates two deadweight loss triangles. O b. Increases total gains from trade for the country that gains revenue from the tariff. O c. Is borne entirely by foreign producers. O d. All of the above. e. Only (a) and (b).

A tariff on a good that would be imported are Only (a) and (b).

a. Creates two deadweight loss triangles: This is true. A tariff on a good that would be imported leads to a reduction in the quantity of the imported good consumed in the domestic market. This reduction in consumption results in a loss of consumer surplus and a loss of producer surplus. These losses are represented by two deadweight loss triangles in the welfare analysis.

b. Increases total gains from trade for the country that gains revenue from the tariff: This is false. While a tariff does generate revenue for the country that imposes it, this revenue is offset by the loss of consumer surplus and producer surplus, resulting in a net welfare loss for the country.

c. Is borne entirely by foreign producers: This is false. While foreign producers may bear a portion of the burden of the tariff, some of the burden may also be passed on to domestic consumers in the form of higher prices.

d. All of the above: This is false, as option b is incorrect.

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what the company does in an attempt to satisfy customers falls into the blank group of the balance scorecard. multiple choice question. financial internal business processes learning and growth customer

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The company's efforts to satisfy customers would fall under the "customer" group of the balanced scorecard.

The balanced scorecard is a management tool that measures a company's performance based on four perspectives: financial, customer, internal business processes, and learning and growth.

The customer perspective is focused on meeting or exceeding customer expectations,balanced scorecard which includes areas such as customer satisfaction, retention, and loyalty.

To achieve this perspective, companies may use various strategies such as improving product quality, providing excellent customer service, and personalizing the customer experience.

By focusing on the customer perspective, companies can increase their competitiveness and profitability. Satisfied customers are more likely to make repeat purchases, recommend the company to others, and provide positive reviews and feedback, which can lead to increased sales and revenue.

Overall, the customer perspective is an essential part of the balanced scorecard, as it allows companies to measure and improve customer satisfaction, which is crucial to their success.

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the expected proceeds from accounts receivable, determined by taking accounts receivable less the allowance for doubtful accounts, is called: multiple choice question. total receivables accounts receivable turnover realizable value contra receivables

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The expected proceeds from accounts receivable is called Realizable Value. This is determined by taking Accounts Receivable minus the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts.

What is Accounts?

Accounting is the process of recording, summarizing, analyzing and reporting financial information about an organization. It is done by professionals, who are known as accountants. Accounting involves maintaining books of accounts, balancing accounts, preparing financial statements, analyzing financial information, and presenting financial information to management in order to help them make better decisions. Accounting is an important part of financial management and helps organizations understand their financial position. Accounting information is used to plan, budget, assess performance, and make decisions. Accounting provides information that is useful for internal decision making, auditing, taxation, and other external activities.

Realizable Value is the amount of Accounts Receivable that is expected to be collected on time and in full.

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The employee portion of Federal payroll taxes is ______.
A) withheld from the employee's paycheck by the employer and remitted to the federal government
B) paid by the employee as part of quarterly estimated tax payments
C) paid by the employee at the time of filing Form 1040

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The employee portion of Federal payroll taxes is  withheld from the employee's paycheck by the employer and remitted to the federal government.

The employee portion of Federal payroll taxes includes Social Security tax and Medicare tax, which are collectively known as FICA (Federal Insurance Contributions Act) taxes. These taxes are withheld from the employee's paycheck by the employer and are then remitted to the federal government on behalf of the employee.Federal payroll taxes include Social Security tax (which funds the Social Security program) and Medicare tax (which funds the Medicare program), both of which are paid by both the employee and employer. The employee portion of these taxes is withheld from the employee's paycheck by the employer and remitted to the federal government on behalf of the employee. The employer is also responsible for paying their portion of these taxes, as well as Federal Unemployment Tax (FUTA), which funds state unemployment programs. The employee does not pay these taxes as part of their quarterly estimated tax payments or at the time of filing Form 1040.

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A computer retailer can purchase a discontinued notebook PC for $800 and wants to obtain a 25% markup on retail. What price should be charged: a. $800, b. $969, c. $1,000, d. $1,067 What is net profit?a. Gross sales minus net sales b. Before-tax dollars c. A measure of the overall performance of the firm d. A measurement of the liquidity of the firm

Answers

A computer reseller who wants to get a 25% markup at retail can buy a retired notebook PC for $800. It should be charged $1,067 for the retail price.

The net profit Gross sales minus net sales.

What is the net sales formula?

The net sales formula is rather simple in profit and sales transactions: net sales = gross sales - (return values + discount losses + sales taxes + allowances).

Is net profit the same as sales minus gross profit?

Net income is calculated as gross profit less all other costs, expenses, and sources of income and revenue that are not included in gross profit. In order to calculate net income, expenses such as debt interest, taxes, and operating or overhead costs are deducted from gross profit.

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Job fairs are primarily useful forrapid hiring of large numbers of people.passive recruiting.locating high-quality applicants.

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Job fairs are primarily useful for the rapid hiring of large numbers of people. They may attract some high-quality applicants, but they are not the best venue for locating top talent.

Job fairs can be useful for various purposes, depending on the company's goals and objectives. However, they are primarily helpful for the rapid hiring of large numbers of people. Job fairs attract a diverse pool of candidates with different backgrounds and skill sets, allowing companies to fill multiple positions quickly.

They can also be cost-effective, as companies can save money on recruitment advertising and other hiring-related expenses. While job fairs may attract some high-quality applicants, they are not the best venue for locating top talent. Many job fair attendees are actively seeking employment, which means they may not be the passive candidates that companies are looking for.

Moreover, job fairs may not attract applicants with the specific skills and experience required for certain roles. Companies should consider other recruitment strategies, such as passive recruiting and targeted advertising, to find the best candidates for their open positions.

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a corporate bond currently yields 8.80%. municipal bonds with the same risk, maturity, and liquidity currently yield 5.60%. at what tax rate would investors be indifferent between the two bonds? (round your final answer to two decimal places.)

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At 36.36% tax rate the investors would be indifferent between the two bonds.

To calculate the tax rate at which investors would be indifferent between a corporate bond and municipal bond with the same risk, maturity, and liquidity, we need to use the concept of taxable equivalent yield.

The taxable equivalent yield is the yield required on a taxable bond to equal the after-tax yield on a tax-exempt bond. In this case, the after-tax yield on a municipal bond is 5.60%, and we need to find the taxable equivalent yield for the corporate bond.

To calculate the taxable equivalent yield, we use the formula:

Taxable Equivalent Yield = Tax-free Yield / (1 - Tax Rate)

Here, the tax-free yield is 5.60%, and we need to find the tax rate that makes the taxable equivalent yield equal to the yield on the corporate bond, which is 8.80%.

Let's assume that the tax rate is x. Then, the taxable equivalent yield for the municipal bond will be:

Taxable Equivalent Yield = 5.60% / (1 - x)

Now, we need to equate this with the yield on the corporate bond, which is 8.80%. So, we get:

8.80% = 5.60% / (1 - x)

Solving for x, we get x = 36.36%.

This means that if an investor is in a tax bracket of 36.36% or higher, they would be indifferent between investing in a corporate bond with a yield of 8.80% and a municipal bond with the same risk, maturity, and liquidity that yields 5.60%. Below this tax bracket, the investor would be better off investing in the municipal bond.

In summary, the tax rate at which investors would be indifferent between a corporate bond and municipal bond with the same risk, maturity, and liquidity is 36.36%.

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Griffin's Goat Farm, Inc., has sales of $676,000, costs of $338,000, depreciation expense of $82,000, interest expense of $51,000, a tax rate of 24 percent, and paid out $42,000 in cash dividends.

What is the addition to retained earnings?

Answers

The addition to retained earnings for Griffin's Goat Farm, Inc. is $113,800. This amount represents the portion of the company's net income that is not distributed to shareholders as dividends but instead is kept in the company's reserves for future use.

To determine the addition to retained earnings, we need to first calculate the company's net income, which is the amount left over after deducting all expenses from the total revenue.

Net income = Total revenue - Total expenses

Net income = $676,000 - ($338,000 + $82,000 + $51,000)

Net income = $205,000

Next, we need to calculate the taxes paid by the company.

Taxes = Net income × Tax rate

Taxes = $205,000 × 0.24

Taxes = $49,200

The amount of dividends paid out by the company is irrelevant to the calculation of the addition to retained earnings.

The addition to retained earnings is calculated as follows:

Addition to retained earnings = Net income - Taxes - Dividends

Addition to retained earnings = $205,000 - $49,200 - $42,000

Addition to retained earnings = $113,800

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if a check was written on bank x for $500 and bank y presented the check to bank x for payment, what will happen to the required reserves for each respective bank after payment is made?

Answers

When bank y presents the check written on bank x for payment, bank x will need to transfer $500 from its reserves to bank y's account in order to fulfill the payment. This will result in a decrease in bank x's required reserves as it no longer holds that $500 in reserve.

On the other hand, bank y will receive $500 from bank x and this amount will be added to its reserves. This increase in reserves will also increase bank y's capacity to lend out money as it will have more funds available.

Overall, the impact on required reserves will depend on the initial reserves held by each bank and the specific regulations governing their reserve requirements. However, the act of payment through the clearing system will result in a transfer of funds and a potential adjustment in the required reserves for each bank involved in the transaction.

It is important to note that banks hold reserves as a buffer against unexpected withdrawals and to meet regulatory requirements. Therefore, managing reserves is a critical part of a bank's operations to ensure they can meet the demands of their customers while maintaining the required levels of reserves to comply with regulations.

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describing the characteristics of perfectly competitive firms. Be sure to include an explanation of how they establish price, why their demand curves are horizontal, and why the price elasticity of demand for the goods or services they sell is usually highly elastic.

Answers

Perfectly competitive firms are characterized by several key features. First, they are numerous, meaning there are many firms in the market, each producing a small share of the total output. Second, they produce identical products, meaning consumers cannot differentiate between the goods or services offered by one firm versus another. Third, they have easy entry and exit, meaning that new firms can enter the market if they believe they can earn a profit, while existing firms can leave the market if they are not profitable.

Because there are many firms producing identical products, each firm is a price taker rather than a price setter. This means that they cannot influence the market price of their product, and must accept the price determined by the market. Therefore, perfectly competitive firms establish price by taking the market price as given, and producing as much as they can at that price.
Because there are so many firms in the market producing identical products, the demand curve facing each firm is perfectly elastic, or horizontal. This means that if the firm were to raise its price even slightly above the market price, it would lose all of its customers to other firms selling the same product at a lower price. Conversely, if the firm were to lower its price even slightly below the market price, it would gain no additional customers, since consumers can purchase the same product from other firms at the market price.The price elasticity of demand for the goods or services sold by perfectly competitive firms is usually highly elastic because consumers have many options for purchasing the same product from different firms at the market price. This means that if the firm were to increase its price, consumers would simply switch to purchasing from another firm selling the same product at the market price. Similarly, if the firm were to lower its price, consumers would not increase their quantity demanded significantly, since they can already purchase the same product at the market price from other firms. Therefore, perfectly competitive firms must price their products very close to the market price in order to sell any quantity of their product.

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9. james is considering purchasing an 11-year bond that is selling for $1,250. what is the current yield for this bond if it has a 6.5% coupon, paid semiannually? a. 6.5% b. 5.2% c. 4.3% d. 3.7%

Answers

The current yield for a bond that has a 6.5% coupon rate and is selling for $1,250 is option b. 5.2%. Current yield is a ratio that calculates the yearly profit an investor makes on a security, like a bond or stock, as a percentage of the security's market value.

First, we need to calculate the annual interest payment. Since the coupon rate is paid semiannually, we need to divide it by 2 to get the semiannual coupon rate: 6.5% / 2 = 3.25%. Then, we need to calculate the semiannual interest payment by multiplying the semiannual coupon rate by the face value of the bond: 3.25% x $1,000 = $32.50.

Since there are two semiannual interest payments per year, the annual interest payment is twice the semiannual payment: $32.50 x 2 = $65.

Now we can calculate the current yield by dividing the annual interest payment by the market price of the bond: $65 / $1,250 = 0.052, or 5.2%. Therefore, the correct answer is b. 5.2%.

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All things being equal, does a national currency tend to rise or fall when foreign investors believe that the country associated with that currency is at risk in large amounts of debt?

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When all things are equal, a national currency tends to fall when foreign investors believe that the country associated with that currency is at risk of large amounts of debt. This is because investors may lose confidence in the country's ability to repay its debt, leading them to sell their holdings in that currency, which results in a decrease in demand for the currency and a subsequent drop in its value.

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If cost data will be used for decision making, it is important to consider ______.
what costs are under the decision maker's direct control
how costs will behave or change
whether or not the rules of GAAP are being followed

Answers

When utilizing cost data for decision making, it is crucial to consider various factors to ensure informed and accurate decisions are made. Firstly, it's essential to determine what costs are under the decision maker's direct control. By focusing on these controllable costs, decision makers can efficiently allocate resources and adjust expenses as needed to optimize operations and profitability.

Another important aspect to consider is how costs will behave or change. Understanding the cost behavior, whether they are fixed or variable, enables decision makers to predict the financial impact of different business scenarios and make informed choices about resource allocation, pricing, and cost management strategies.

Lastly, it's important to consider whether the rules of Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP) are being followed. GAAP provides a standardized framework for financial reporting and ensures consistency and reliability in the presentation of cost data. Adherence to GAAP guidelines is essential to maintain credibility with investors, lenders, and other stakeholders, while also ensuring regulatory compliance.

In summary, for effective decision making using cost data, it is essential to evaluate controllable costs, cost behavior, and compliance with GAAP. By taking these factors into account, decision makers can make informed choices that support the financial health and success of their organizations.

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36. if mortgage rates rise from 5% to 10%, but the expected rate of increase in housing prices rises from 2% to 9%, are people more or less likely to buy houses?

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If mortgage rates rise from 5% to 10%, it would make it more expensive for people to borrow money to buy a house.This would likely make people less likely to buy houses, as the cost of borrowing would increase significantly.

However, if the expected rate of increase in housing prices rises from 2% to 9%, it could potentially offset the impact of higher mortgage rates. If people believe that housing prices will increase significantly, they may still be willing to take on the higher cost of borrowing. This is because the potential appreciation in housing prices could outweigh the increased cost of borrowing due to higher mortgage rates. However, individual decisions may vary based on factors such as affordability and personal financial situations.Ultimately, whether people are more or less likely to buy houses would depend on their individual financial situation and risk tolerance.

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You are the project manager for an automotive manufacturing company. You need to confirm that the project you are undertaking aligns with the organization's business strategy. What is BEST used to accomplish this? Stakeholder analysis r Design of experiments r Requirements documentation r Benefit analysis

Answers

To confirm that the project aligns with the organization's business strategy, benefit analysis is the best tool to use. Benefit analysis assesses the potential benefits that the project will bring to the organization and compares them to the associated costs.

It evaluates whether the project aligns with the organization's goals and strategic objectives and whether the expected benefits justify the investment of resources. Benefit analysis can help the project manager identify potential risks and challenges, and make informed decisions about resource allocation and prioritization. By conducting a benefit analysis, the project manager can confirm that the project aligns with the organization's business strategy and contributes to its long-term success.

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paxton company can produce a component of its product that incurs the following costs per unit: direct materials, $9.20; direct labor, $13.20, and incremental overhead $2.20. an outside supplier has offered to sell the product to paxton for $31.80. compute the net incremental cost or savings of buying the component. multiple choice

Answers

Paxton Company will save $7.20 cost per unit by producing the component internally rather than buying it from the outside supplier.  So, the correct option is D.  $7.20 cost per unit.

To compute the net incremental cost or savings of buying the component for Paxton Company, we need to compare the cost of producing the component internally versus purchasing it from the outside supplier.

Here are the costs per unit for producing the component internally:
1. Direct materials: $9.20
2. Direct labor: $13.20
3. Incremental overhead: $2.20

First, we need to calculate the total cost of producing the component internally:
Total internal cost = Direct materials + Direct labor + Incremental overhead
Total internal cost = $9.20 + $13.20 + $2.20
Total internal cost = $24.60

The cost per unit of purchasing the component from the outside supplier is $31.80.

Now, we need to find the net incremental cost or savings:
Net incremental cost or savings = Cost of purchasing from supplier - Total internal cost
Net incremental cost or savings = $31.80 - $24.60
Net incremental cost or savings = $7.20

Therefore, Paxton Company will save $7.20 cost per unit by producing the component internally rather than buying it from the outside supplier.

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Complete Question:

Paxton Company can produce a component of its product that incurs the following costs per unit direct materials, $920, direct labor, $13.20, variable overhead $2.20 offered to sell the product to Paxton for $31.80. Compute the net incremental cost or savings of buying the component. Multiple Choice

A. $2.20 cost per unit

B.$7.20 savings per unit.

C. $0 cost or savings per unit

D. $7.20 cost per unit

E. $2.20 savings per unit

Describe three features of Agriculture before the Agricultural Revolution.

Answers

The three features of Agriculture before the Agricultural Revolution are "Nomadic lifestyle, Small-scale farming, and Limited technology".

The agricultural revolution was the agriculture small-scale practices and subsistence-based activity that played a secondary role to hunting and gathering.

The three features of Agriculture before the Agricultural Revolution are Nomadic lifestyle, Small-scale farming, and Limited technology.

The Nomadic lifestyle referred to practice in agriculture in which humans were predominantly nomadic and relied on hunting and gathering for sustenance. They moved from place to place in search of food.

The Small-scale farming referred to clearing small plots of land and planting crops.

The  Limited technology referred to used primitive tools, such as stone axes and digging sticks, to clear land and plant crops.

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a $260,000 issue of bonds that sold for $255,000 matures on june 25, 2020. the journal entry to record the payment of the bond on the maturity date is to:

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The journal entry to record the payment of the bond on the maturity date would be:

Debit: Bonds Payable ($260,000)

Credit: Discount on Bonds Payable ($5,000)

Credit: Cash ($260,000)

When the bonds were issued, they were sold at a discount. The discount is amortized over the life of the bond, which reduces the carrying value of the bond. The carrying value of the bond at maturity will be the face value of the bond, which is $260,000.

The discount on bonds payable account is a contra-liability account that represents the reduction in the carrying value of the bonds due to the discount. When the bond matures, the company will pay the face value of the bond, which is $260,000, and the discount on bonds payable account will be credited for the remaining unamortized discount of $5,000. The cash account will be debited for the amount paid, which is $260,000.

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Full Question  ;

A $260,000 issue of bonds that sold for?$255,000 matures on June? 25, 2020. The journal entry to record the payment of the bond on the maturity date is?

when accounts receivable are confirmed at an interim date, auditors need not be concerned with: multiple choice obtaining a year-end trial balance of receivables, comparing it to the interim trial balance, and obtaining evidence and explanations for large variations. obtaining a summary of receivables transactions from the interim date to the year-end date. considering the necessity for some additional confirmations as of the balance sheet date if balances have increased materially. sending negative confirmations to all the customers as of the year-end date

Answers

When accounts receivable are confirmed at an interim date, auditors need not be concerned with sending negative confirmations to all the customers as of the year-end date. Option d is correct.

Negative confirmations are a type of accounts receivable confirmation that asks customers to respond only if they disagree with the balance stated on the confirmation request. They are usually used in situations where the auditor believes that the risk of material misstatement is low, and the cost of following up with non-responding customers is expected to be low.

When accounts receivable are confirmed at an interim date, auditors have already obtained evidence about the balances at that date, and they have compared them to the balances in the financial statements. They have also obtained evidence and explanations for large variations, and they have considered the necessity for some additional confirmations as of the balance sheet date if balances have increased materially. However, they still need to obtain a summary of receivables transactions from the interim date to the year-end date, to ensure that all significant transactions are recorded in the financial statements.

Therefore, option d is correct.

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If Martha decides to use a __________ strategy to grow the Coffee Collective, she would distribute a series of Coffee Collective branded teas and coffees through the local supermarket.
private branding
sustainable branding
multiproduct branding
mixed branding
multibranding

Answers

If Martha decides to use a multiproduct branding strategy to grow the Coffee Collective, she would distribute a series of Coffee Collective branded teas and coffees through the local supermarket. The correct answer is option c.

This strategy would allow the Coffee Collective to expand its product line while still maintaining a consistent brand image. Additionally, if Martha wanted to offer more sustainable options, she could consider using sustainable branding to emphasize the Coffee Collective's commitment to eco-friendly practices. Alternatively, if Martha wanted to offer teas and coffees under different brand names, she could use mixed branding or multibranding strategies to appeal to different segments of the market. Ultimately, the strategy Martha chooses will depend on her business goals and target audience.Hence the correct answer is option c.

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Secondary reserves for banks are:
a. the same as the bank's net worth.
b. mainly the bank's liquid securities.
c. vault cash.
d. deposits the bank has at the Federal Reserve.

Answers

Secondary reserves for banks are mainly the bank's liquid securities. The correct option is b.

Secondary reserves, also known as supplemental reserves, are the assets that banks hold in addition to their required reserves. Required reserves are the funds that banks are required to hold by law to ensure that they have enough cash on hand to cover withdrawals and other demands for funds from their customers.

Secondary reserves typically consist of liquid securities such as U.S. Treasury bills, government bonds, and other highly rated bonds that can be easily converted into cash. These securities are considered highly liquid because they can be sold quickly in the open market without a significant loss of value.

The bank's net worth, which represents the difference between its assets and liabilities, is not considered a type of reserve. While a bank's net worth can be used to absorb losses and protect depositors, it is not a liquid asset that can be used to cover short-term funding needs.

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Who must determine what steps are necessary to protect the property?

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The property owner or the person responsible for managing the property must determine what steps are necessary to protect the property.

This includes identifying potential risks and hazards, implementing security measures such as alarms and surveillance systems, and maintaining the property to prevent damage or theft.

The property owner or manager should also regularly review and update their security measures to ensure they remain effective and relevant. Ultimately, it is their responsibility to ensure the safety and security of the property and its occupants.

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What is "strategy"?
Strategy describes environmental efforts of the firm.
Strategy is an explanation of past performance.
Strategy refers to how an organization is going to compete.
Strategy is innovation within the firm.

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Strategy refers to how an organization is going to compete.

It is a comprehensive plan or a roadmap that outlines an organization's goals, objectives, and the specific actions it will take to achieve them. The strategy takes into consideration the external environment, competition, available resources, and the internal strengths and weaknesses of the organization.

It provides a clear direction and sets priorities for the organization, enabling it to make informed decisions and allocate resources effectively. Strategy is an ongoing process that requires continuous monitoring and adjustment to changing circumstances.

Effective HR strategy aligns the organization's human capital with the overall business strategy and objectives. HR strategy includes talent acquisition, training and development, performance management, compensation and benefits, and employee relations.

By aligning HR strategy with the overall business strategy, the organization can attract, retain, and develop the talent necessary to achieve its goals and objectives.

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How would a $10 increase in depreciation expense affect the each of the three financial statements?

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A $10 increase in depreciation expense will affect the three financial statements in the following ways: Income Statement, Balance Sheet, Cash Flow Statement

Income Statement: Depreciation expense is a non-cash expense that reduces the net income of a company. An increase in depreciation expense by $10 would reduce the net income by $10. Therefore, the net income would decrease by $10.

Balance Sheet: Depreciation expense is a part of the company's accumulated depreciation, which is deducted from the gross value of assets. An increase in depreciation expense by $10 would increase the accumulated depreciation account by $10. This would reduce the book value of the assets by $10.

Cash Flow Statement: Depreciation expense is added back to the net income in the cash flow statement because it is a non-cash expense. An increase in depreciation expense by $10 would increase the cash flow from operations by $10. Therefore, the cash flow from operations would increase by $10.

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please answer this in 1500-2000 Words Describe how the targetmarket's motivation to purchase a product is affected by the levelof importance of the product to a customer.

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The motivation of a target market to purchase a product can be influenced by the level of importance of the product to the customer. The importance of a product can be determined by how necessary it is to meet the needs or wants of the customer.

For example, a customer who needs a new car to get to work will be more motivated to purchase a car than a customer who has a reliable car and is simply looking for a luxury upgrade. In this case, the importance of the product (a car) is much higher for the customer who needs it for daily transportation, and this will increase their motivation to purchase the product.

Similarly, customers are more motivated to purchase products that are important to their personal values, beliefs, or lifestyle. For example, a customer who values sustainability and eco-friendliness will be more motivated to purchase products that align with those values. In this case, the importance of the product (eco-friendly products) is high for the customer, and this will increase their motivation to purchase those products.

On the other hand, customers may be less motivated to purchase products that are not important to them. For example, a customer who has no interest in fitness may be less motivated to purchase a fitness tracker, even if it is the latest and most advanced model.

In this case, the importance of the product (a fitness tracker) is low for the customer, and this will decrease their motivation to purchase the product.

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